Answer:
Increases.
Explanation:
Hormones may be defined as the chemical messengers of the body that can transmit information and maintains homeostasis. The hormones can directly go into the bloodstream and may release through the special ducts.
Thyroid hormones maintain the biochemical pathway and the overall body metabolism. The levels of the thyroid hormone increases in the winter and decreases in the summer. This is because in winter our body requires more heat and it can be achieved by producing the excess thyroid hormone.
Thus, the answer is increase.
Prosthetic joint infection is most often because of a. defective replacement material. b. injury to the joint. c. hematogenous transfer. d. arthritis.
Answer: Prosthetic joint infection is most often because of defective replacement material and hematogenous transfer. The correct options are A and C.
Explanation: A prosthetic joint is a joint that is replaced with an orthopaedic prosthesis due to a dysfunctional joint surface or arthritis.Infection is the most serious complication of joint replacement.
Prosthetic joint infection is classified into the following:
-acute postoperative,
-delayed onset, and
- acute late onset
these infections are a result of intraoperative wound or device contamination or in the case of acute late onset prosthetic joint infection result from hematogenous seeding of a prosthetic joint by bacteria invading from a remote site of infection. I hope this helps. Thanks
A nurse has just finished a presentation on hospice and palliative care. Which statement by a participant would indicate a need for further education?
A) "Palliative care provides pain relief and other distressing symptoms."
B) "Hospice care programs focus on quality rather than length of life."
C) "In hospice care, the nurses make most of the care decisions for the patients."
D) "Hospice focuses on treatments and care aimed only at relieving symptoms in the last few months of life"
E) "Palliative care affirms life and regards dying as a normal process."
Answer: C "In hospice care, the nurses make most of the care decisions for the patients."
Explanation:
They need a deeper understanding of what to do and whats required.
Karen had an injury to her nose since her last checkup. Identify the prefix in the term used to describe the location of the scar.
The prefix in the term to describe the location of a scar would be based on the specific area of the nose where the scar is located, using specific medical terminology derived from Greek and Latin to accurately pinpoint the location, such as "apico-" or "nas-".
Explanation:The prefix used to describe the location of a scar on Karen's nose would depend on the specific area where the scar is located. Medical terminology uses prefixes derived from ancient Greek and Latin to describe precise locations on the body. For example, if the scar is at the tip of the nose, the prefix "apico-" might be used, as in "apicolateral" to describe a location that is both at the tip and to the side of the nose. However, if we consider the term "nasal", which pertains to the nose, the prefix is "nas-", as the word is derived from the Latin "nasus" for nose. Prefixes serve to specify locations and can denote aspects such as below ("hypo-"), above ("supra-"), or around ("circum-"). Anatomical terms are precise, thereby reducing confusion and potential medical errors.
What is the importance of having the Official Guidelines as a required component of the ICD-10-CM/PCS code set in the final rule of the electronic transactions and coding standards?
Answer:
The importance of having the Official Guidelines as a required component of the ICD-10-CM/PCS code set in the final rule of the electronic transactions and coding standards is to assist the United States health information system with a coding system that can make it easy for providers of healthcare services to determine payment, gather information about diseases, categorize and code each type of condition, symptom and procedure; in addition, it can greatly assist electronic health recording for procedures used on patients admitted in hospitals.
Final answer:
The Official Guidelines of ICD-10-CM/PCS provide enforceable standards for electronic medical records, ensuring they are secure and reliable. They facilitate consistent healthcare delivery and communication among professionals, and serve as legal and educational tools. The guidelines also uphold privacy and efficiency in healthcare operations.
Explanation:
The inclusion of the Official Guidelines as a required component of the ICD-10-CM/PCS code set in the final rule of electronic transactions and coding standards is crucial. Firstly, these guidelines ensure that pharmaceutical companies and healthcare institutions adopt modern electronic documentation methods that are secure, reliable, and searchable, comparable to paper documentation. Secondly, they offer enforceable principles and terminology to maintain the integrity and clarity of medical records.
This importance is highlighted by the reliance of healthcare providers on electronic medical records (EMR) as legal documents that demonstrate compliance with care standards and are used in legal settings. It is stated that 'If it wasn't documented, it wasn't done', emphasizing the legal significance of EMR. Thirdly, the consistent use of ICD codes facilitates accurate healthcare delivery, such as the correct ordering of tests and administration of treatments, as well as seamless communication among healthcare team members and administration, including for insurance claims and epidemiological statistics.
ICD codes can be found in various locations within the healthcare system. For instance, medical laboratories utilize these codes to identify the tests that need to be conducted for confirming diagnoses, while health-care management systems use them to ensure that all treatments and lab work are appropriate for specific medical conditions.
Guidelines as Legal and Educational Tools
Guidelines not only serve a legal purpose but also serve as educational tools for healthcare workers, nutrition educators, and various other stakeholders involved in health and nutrition. They provide informative guidance to help achieve optimal nutritional balance and health and standardize policies across different health-related organizations. In the context of technology, guidelines concerning confidentiality, electronic payments, professional boundaries, and the use of technology in the workplace provide clear standards to uphold privacy and efficiency in health care.
Which part of the adaptive immune response involves B cells? a. Neither humoral nor cell-mediated b. Humoral c. Cell-mediated d. Both humoral and cell-mediated
Answer:
Humoral immunity includes the B-cells.
Explanation:
There are two types of adaptive immunity responses. 1) cell mediated which possess of T cells
2) humoral immunity which possess of B-cells.
Humoral immunity is directed primarily against 1) toxin mediated diseases 2) certain viruses 3) infections in which virulence is related to polysaccharide capsules and to opsonize bacteria.
Role of B-cells in humoral immunity is
1) They differentiate into plasma cells and produce anitbodies
2) They are anitgen producing cells
B-cells are produced in fetal liver and in adukt life in bone marrow.
Later they are matured and undergoes through the process of clonal deletion as well.
The Humoral part of the adaptive immune response involves B cells, which produce antibodies defending against bacteria and viruses.
Explanation:The part of the adaptive immune response that involves B cells is b. Humoral. This part of the immune response defends against bacteria and viruses by producing antibodies in response to antigens (foreign substances in the body). B cells are the main components in the humoral immune response. They are able to produce and secrete these antibodies due to their ability to mature into plasma cells.
On the other hand, cell-mediated immunity involves T cells and is mostly defensive against cells that are infected internally such as those invaded by viruses.
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Malaria is a zoonotic disease. Ellen was infected by a bite from the Anopheles mosquito.
Identify each of the following for Ellen's case:
portal of entry, mode of transmission, and reservoir.
Answer: Malaria is a disease caused by parasite Plasmodium malariae which enters the body through the bite from the anopheles mosquito. This parasite is present in the saliva of the anopheles mosquito and enters the bloodstream when the mosquito takes a blood meal. Plasmodium's reservoir is human and intermittent host ia anopheles mosquito.
Explanation:
Malaria can be caused by five different species of Plasmodium.
PORTAL OF ENTRY AND MODE OF TRANSMISSION: Malaria is always transmitted by the bite of a female Anopheles mosquito infected by plasmodium. Transfusion of blood from one infected person to another and use of contaminated needles and syringes are other potential modes of transmission. Congenital transmission of malaria can also occur. When the parasite enters the blood via the saliva of the mosquito it multiplies in the blood and enters the liver and infects the person who present symptoms of malaria as chills fever headcahe joint pain. Humans are the reservoir for the plasmodium species causing malaria.
Parents of a child with cystic fibrosis demonstrate knowledge of the effects of hot weather on their child when they state that hot weather is hazardous because the child has which problem?
The choices are:
A. Poor ability to concentrate urine.
B. Little skin pigment to prevent sunburn.
C. Poorly functioning temperature control center.
D. Abnormally high salt loss through perspiration.
Answer:
The answer is: D, Abnormally high salt loss through perspiration
Explanation:
"Cystic fibrosis" is a disease that is regarded hereditary in nature, meaning, it can be passed from parent to the offspring. People with this condition develop problems in their lungs and digestive system. They are also prone to losing more salt than what an average person loses when it comes to sweat. In this case, they are more prone to dehydration.
So, in the situation above, the parents will demonstrate knowledge of the effects of hot weather on their child when they state that hot weather is hazardous because the child has "abnormally high salt loss through perspiration." Thus, it is very important for them to be hydrated by drinking plenty of water and even sports drink (this has lots of electrolytes).
Hot weather can be harmful to a child with cystic fibrosis as they have dysfunctional sodium channels that result in higher loss of salt through sweat, leading to potential salt depletion and hazardous symptoms.
Explanation:The parents are indicating an understanding of the challenges presented to a child with cystic fibrosis in hot weather due to increased sweat production. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder affecting multiple organs, but primarily leads to build-up of viscous mucus in the lungs. Among other things, this condition affects sodium channels, which directly impacts the efficiency of sodium and chloride ions reabsorption in the body.
During hot weather, people sweat more, leading to an increased loss of salt (sodium and chloride ions) for a person with CF as compared to someone without the disease. This can result in salt depletion and imbalance in the body's electrolytes, potentially causing hazardous symptoms like fatigue, abnormal heart rhythms, and in severe cases, heat stroke.
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Which phenomena best accounts for the increased presence of leukocytes at the site of inflammation?
Answer: Leukocytes recruitment is a phenomena which causes the leukocytes to travel to the site of inflammation.
Explanation:
When there is an inlfammation anywhere in the body due to any cell injury,necrosis,infection or a foreign body, mediators are released from the site of inflammation which activates the leukocytes. Leukocytes are the white blood cells i.e neutrophils and macrophages which fight against the inflammatory agents.
Mediators released from the site if inflammation as in Cytokines and TNF (tissue necrosis factor) activate the integrins and endothelial adhesion molecules which causes the attachment and rolling of the leukocytes on the endothelium. Chemokines are the substances which attract the leukocytes to the site of inflammation. Later these chemokines causes the leukocytes to extravasate out of the vessels to the site of inflammation and fight the inflammatory substances.
The EEG is NOT used for diagnostic purposes for which of the following medical issues?
A. Epilepsy
B. Tumors
C. Drug poisoning
D. All of the above can use the EEG for diagnostic purposes
Answer:
D
Explanation:
The EEG may also be used to determine the overall electrical activity of the brain for example to elevate trauma, drug intoxication, or extended brain damage or comatose patients. also help diagnose conditions such a seizures, epilepsy, head injuries, dizziness ,headaches brain tumors and ,sleeping problems.
Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity? A) thoracic cavity B) vertebral cavity C) spinal cord D) cranial cavity
Answer:
Thoracic cavity is not part of the dorsal cavity. Correct option is A.
Explanation:
Dorsal cavity is the cavity that is located at the posterior part of the human body. It is divided into two sub cavities:
- the cranial cavity: this cavity protects the brain .
- The spinal cavity ( also called vertebral cavity) : this protects the spinal cord.
The Thoracic cavity is part of the ventral body cavity which is located at the anterior part of the human body. I hope this helps. Thanks.
The dorsal cavity includes the cranial cavity, vertebral cavity, and spinal cord. The thoracic cavity, which houses the heart and lungs, is part of the ventral cavity.
The correct answer is option A.
The dorsal cavity is one of the two main body cavities, with the ventral cavity being the other. It is located on the posterior side of the body and contains various structures that are essential for protection and support of the central nervous system. Let's examine the components of the dorsal cavity and identify which one is not a part of it:
Cranial Cavity (D): The cranial cavity is a component of the dorsal cavity and houses the brain. It is protected by the skull, which provides a bony encasement for the brain, safeguarding it from external injuries.
Vertebral Cavity (B): The vertebral cavity is another part of the dorsal cavity. It runs along the vertebral column (spine) and contains the spinal cord. The vertebral column, made up of individual vertebrae, surrounds and protects the spinal cord.
Spinal Cord (C): The spinal cord itself is located within the vertebral cavity, making it a key structure in the dorsal cavity. It serves as the central communication pathway between the brain and the rest of the body.
Thoracic Cavity (A): The thoracic cavity is not a part of the dorsal cavity. Instead, it is a component of the ventral cavity, which is situated on the anterior (front) side of the body. The thoracic cavity contains vital organs such as the heart, lungs, and major blood vessels.
In summary, the dorsal cavity encompasses the cranial cavity, vertebral cavity, and the spinal cord. The thoracic cavity, however, is not a part of the dorsal cavity; it belongs to the ventral cavity. The dorsal cavity primarily focuses on protecting and housing the central nervous system structures, while the ventral cavity contains various other vital organs and structures.
Therefore, from the given options the correct one is A.
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If a pharmacist added each of the following to 22-g packages of 2% mupirocin ointment, what would be the percentage strengths of the resulting ointments: (a) 0.25 g mupirocin powder and (b) 0.25 g of non medicated ointment base? The correct answers are (a) 3.10% w/w and (b) 1.98% w/w. Please show how this problem is solved.
The new percentage strengths of mupirocin are calculated by finding the mass of mupirocin in relation to the total mass of the ointment in both cases. Case (a) yields a percentage strength of 3.10% w/w after adding 0.25g of mupirocin, while case (b) results in a strength of 1.98% w/w after adding 0.25g of non medicated ointment base.
Explanation:This question is related to mathematics, specifically calculations regarding percentage strengths for pharmaceutical products. It can be solved using simple mass percentage calculations. In the given case, the initial mass of mupirocin in the ointment is 2% of 22 g, which equals 0.44g.
Case (a):If 0.25 g of mupirocin powder is added, the total mupirocin becomes (0.44 g + 0.25 g = 0.69 g). The new total mass of the ointment becomes (22 g + 0.25 g = 22.25 g). Thus, the new percentage strength of mupirocin is (0.69 g / 22.25 g) * 100 = 3.10 % w/w.
Case (b):If 0.25 g non medicated ointment base is added, the total mupirocin remains 0.44 g but the total ointment mass becomes (22 g + 0.25 g = 22.25 g). Hence, the new percentage strength of mupirocin is (0.44 g / 22.25 g) * 100 = 1.98 % w/w.
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The correct division into the component parts of arthrogram, which is a record of a joint, is _____.
Answer:The correct division into the component parts of arthrogram, which is a record of a joint, is arthr/o + -gram
Explanation:
arthrogram is images of joints that can be viewed after injection of a contrast medium. The type of contrast injected into the joint depends on the subsequent imaging that is planned. This procedure is carried out using the fluoroscopy of X- ray.
The combining form arthr/o and the suffix –gram together makes up the arthrogram.
A baby has been diagnosed with hemophilia. The mother reports that the child had started crawling and recently stopped. You recognize the child is potentially suffering from bleeding into the joint. You would instruct the mother to: (Select all that apply):
a. Apply ice to the affected area.
b. Administer Tylenol (acetaminophen).
c. Put a gate across the stairs.
d. Apply knee and elbow protectors.
all of the above
The blood clots incorrectly as a result of hemophilia, an inherited bleeding disorder. Both spontaneous bleeding and bleeding after an accident or surgery may come from this. Thus, option A is correct.
What baby has been diagnosed with hemophilia?Blood must have clotting factors in order to clot. Blood clots to stop uncontrollable bleeding The formation of clots to stop bleeding involves much blood clotting factors.
There is a probability that the baby will be born with hemophilia if the mother has the condition. Blood contains a variety of clotting proteins that can aid in halting bleeding.
It is possible to schedule specific testing for hemophilia prior to delivery in families where the condition has a known history or in individuals who have received a prenatal genetic diagnosis of the condition.
Therefore, Due to insufficient clotting factor in their blood, children with hemophilia cannot stop bleeding.
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Xenon laser photocoagulation for prophylaxis of a recent right eye retinal detachment with a giant tear is performed for an accidental injury sustained from a baseball to the eye at fastball practice. What are the procedure and diagnosis codes for this service?
Procedure code: 65855
Diagnosis code: H33.011
Explanation:The procedure code for Xenon laser photocoagulation for prophylaxis of a recent right eye retinal detachment with a giant tear is 65855. This code specifically denotes the application of laser photocoagulation to prevent the progression of retinal detachment, and it is appropriate for cases involving giant tears. The procedural code provides a standardized way for healthcare providers and insurance companies to document and bill for the specific service performed.
The diagnosis code for this scenario is H33.011. This code corresponds to a rhegmatogenous retinal detachment with a break in the retina, specifying the affected eye as the right eye. Proper diagnosis coding is crucial for accurate medical record-keeping and billing.
In this case, the code captures both the nature of the retinal detachment (rhegmatogenous) and the location (right eye). These codes are essential for healthcare providers to communicate effectively with insurance companies and other stakeholders, ensuring proper reimbursement and facilitating accurate medical history documentation.
It's important to note that medical coding plays a vital role in healthcare administration, enabling streamlined communication among healthcare providers, insurers, and regulatory entities. Accurate coding ensures that healthcare services are appropriately documented and billed, facilitating the provision of quality care and efficient reimbursement processes.