The building blocks that compose proteins are called ___________________. The instructions for building these proteins are found in __________. A group of _______ nitrogen bases is the code that calls for one _________________. A group of three nitrogen bases is called a ___________. The protein building instructions are found in the ____________ (part of the cell), but the proteins are actually built by the ________________. The protein building instructions must be sent out to the cytoplasm. A copy of the instructions is made in the form of ________. This process is called ______________________.

Answers

Answer 1
Final answer:

Proteins are composed of amino acids, with the assembly instructions found in DNA inside the nucleus. Three nitrogen bases from DNA, a codon, translate into an amino acid during protein synthesis. The instructions are copied onto mRNA through transcription and then used by the ribosome to build the protein.

Explanation:

The building blocks that compose proteins are called amino acids. The instructions for building these proteins are found in DNA. A group of three nitrogen bases is the code that calls for one amino acid. A group of three nitrogen bases is called a codon. The protein building instructions are found in the nucleus (part of the cell), but the proteins are actually built by the ribosome. The protein building instructions must be sent out to the cytoplasm. A copy of the instructions is made in the form of mRNA. This process is called transcription.


Related Questions

A student discovers a mat of green organisms living along the edge of a stream and suspects it is a moss. To confirm that this organism is a moss and not a green alga, he should look for _____.

Answers

Answer:

He should look out for tiny leaf-like structures which mosses possess but algae does not .

Explanation:

In general, moss looks fibrous, feathered or latticed when viewed up close. Carpets of moss are springy to the touch. When germinating, moss puts up thin stems sometimes with leaves on top and reproductive spores. Algae have no threadlike structures or leaves. Instead, algae spread as a clump of living cells. Because algae usually grow in wet environments, they look like a slimy, wet mass, often green in color. Both moss and algae may appear green or brown depending on species and the dryness of the conditions.

Proteins are made by:_____________ organelles RNA Ribosomes in plants only Ribosomes in plants and animals in the nucleus of plant and animal cells

Answers

Answer: Ribosomes in plants and animals

Answer:

Proteins are made by: Ribosomes in plants and animals

Explanation:

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A scientist, who wants to study the effects of nitrogen on wheat plant growth, sets up an experiment with 4 groups of wheat plants: group A gets 20 pounds per acre, group B gets 40 pounds per acre, group C gets 60 pounds per acre, and group D gets 0 pounds per acre. What is the dependent variable? Select one: C A. the weight of the plants at the end of the experiment B. the amount of sunlight the plants were exposed to C. the temperature the plants were grown in D. the amount of nitrogen given to the plants x ©

Answers

Answer:

The weight of the plants at the end of the experiment.

Explanation:

Since the experiment was set up to study the growth of the wheat plants, weight is a sign of growth. So at the end of the experiment, the weight of the plant will be compared to the amount of nitrogen added.

If a graph is to be plotted, the amount of nitrogen (independent variable) will be on the x-axis and the weight of the plants (dependent variable) will be on the y-axis.

The amount of sunlight and temperature are not included because the question does not say that they are parameters in the experiment.

Phospholipids make up most of the lipid part of the cell membrane. Since water exists on both the outside and inside of a cell, which of the following phospholipid arrangements makes the most sense?
a. a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing outside the cell
b. two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the non-polar tails facing out on both sides
c. a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing inside the cell
d. two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is D. (Two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides)

Explanation:

The plasma membrane creates a barrier between the interior part of the cell and the cytoplasm. It is consisting of proteins and phospholipids and bi-layered in nature. Phospholipids are known as the main component of the plasma membrane.

Phospholipids are composed of alcohol and fatty acids and they are arranged in a specific manner. Each phospholipid molecule contains a water-hating tail that is hydrophobic in nature and a water-loving head which is hydrophilic in nature and the polar heads face the outside.

Final answer:

The correct arrangement is two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides, forming a phospholipid bilayer that acts as a barrier, maintaining the integrity of the cell. The correct option is d.

Explanation:

The correct phospholipid arrangement that makes the most sense, given that water exists on both the outside and inside of a cell, is d. The cell membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer. In this structure, the hydrophilic (water-loving) polar heads of the phospholipids face the aqueous environments of the cell's interior and exterior, while the hydrophobic (water-fearing) non-polar tails face inward, away from the water, creating a nonpolar region between both layers. This arrangement is critical because it allows the plasma membrane to act as an effective barrier to separate cellular contents from the external environment, maintaining the integrity of the cell in its water-based surroundings.

Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a. hypotension and shock. b. hypertension and bradycardia. c. pallor and vasoconstriction above the level of injury. d. extreme pain below the level of injury.

Answers

Answer:

B) hypertension and bradycardia.

Explanation:

Autonomic dysreflexia is a syndrome which is characterised by the sudden rise in the blood pressure of the human. The disease is common in the people with a higher level of spinal cord injuries above the T6 level.

The condition occurs when some external stimuli like pain or irritant activate the involuntary response in the body which cause the blood pressure to rise (hypertension). This leads to the slowdown of the heartbeat (bradycardia) to restore the blood pressure but the body cannot restore the blood pressure due to the damage in the spinal cord.

Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.

Every sensory neuron is a (an) ______ to the central nervous system, and every motor neuron is a(an) ______ from the central nervous system.

Answers

Answer:

Every sensory neuron is a (an) stimuli to the central nervous system, and every motor neuron is a(an) transmitter from the central nervous system.

Researchers endeavoring to conduct an on-line study should consider that there are some potential risks of harm to subjects unique to internet-based research. One of these risks is:1. Recruiting, consenting and debriefing subjects takes place on-line, and may require little to no interaction with the subjects.2. People assume pseudonymous on-line identities, such as an avatar in an MMORPG.3. Online studies do not require the documentation of informed consent.4. Individuals may post private identifiable information about themselves on-line without intending it to be public and available to researchers.5. Individuals may post private identifiable information about themselves on-line without intending it to be public and available to researchers.

Answers

Answer:

Answer is 5.  Individuals may post private identifiable information about themselves on-line without intending it to be public and available to researchers.

Explanation:

It should be noted that as the internet have many advantages, so also it has disadvantages.

There are so many people known as hackers , who know how to find their ways in accessing information that are not meant for them. This they do in a crooked way.

In this sense, people should avoid posting information that are sensitive online, especially when they are undergoing online lectures or internet based research.

They should adopt other means, if it is compulsory or necessary to pass sensitive information to their online tutor.

Finally, people should understand that anything posted online directly or indirectly is public, that is , seen by many people.

Final answer:

OPTION 4.

Researchers must consider the risk of subjects inadvertently posting private information when conducting online studies, and must uphold ethical standards including informed consent.

Explanation:

Researchers in online studies face unique risks of harm to subjects, such as the potential for participants to post private identifiable information online without intending it to become public and available to researchers. Online privacy is of particular concern, as subjects may not be fully aware of who has access to their information. It is imperative that researchers adhere to ethical standards, such as obtaining informed consent, minimizing risks, and ensuring the safety of participants. These protocols are essential to protect the subjects' privacy and ensure the integrity of the research.

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Most sponges are _____________, meaning both sexes occur in the same individual but do not usually self-fertilize because individual sponges produce eggs and sperm at different times.

Answers

Answer:

Hermaphrodites or asexual

Explanation:

Omnivores: _________a. subsist on dead matter and waste products of other organisms. b. may exist at any trophic level. c. feed primarily on primary producers. d. are never found in the first trophic level. e. always exist at the third trophic level.

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Omnivores is one of the classification of animals based on their feeding pattern characterized by their ability to feed on both other animals (flesh) and plant materials. They can behave like carnivores and also like herbivores in terms of what they feed on. Due to this property they possess, they can be found in any trophic level except the first trophic level.

Omnivores can never be found in the first trophic level because they are also consumers, and that role of beginning energy flow in a food chain by obtaining energy from sunlight belongs to autotrophs called PRIMARY PRODUCERS. Omnivores can now because of their ability to feed on plants and animals, exist from the second trophic level upwards.

Final answer:

Omnivores can exist at any trophic level and consume both plants and animals. Option b is correct.

Explanation:

Omnivores are heterotrophs that consume both plants and animals. They include pigs, brown bears, gulls, crows, and humans. Some omnivores eat more plants than animals, while others eat more animals than plants. They can exist at any trophic level and are not restricted to the third level. Therefore, the correct answer is b. may exist at any trophic level.

Omnivores are indeed versatile in their diet and can exist at various trophic levels within an ecosystem. Unlike strict herbivores that primarily consume plants or strict carnivores that primarily consume other animals, omnivores have a mixed diet, including both plant and animal matter. This adaptability allows them to occupy different niches and play diverse roles in food webs.

Omnivores can be found at various trophic levels, from primary consumers that feed on plants to secondary or tertiary consumers that may also consume other animals. This adaptability and flexibility in diet contribute to the ecological success of omnivores, as they can exploit a wider range of available food resources in their environment. Examples of omnivores include bears, humans, and certain bird species.

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Johann Sebastian Bach, renowned for his huge repertoire of musical compositions in the sixteenth century, was also, as a boy, an outstanding singer in the soprano range until he was about sixteen. That boys become men is axiomatic, and the change in voice is a characteristic of _______

Answers

Answer:

sexual dimorphism

Explanation:

Dimorphism means having  two different forms, therefore sexual dimorphism  is a phenomenal where two sexes of the same species will exhibit different characteristics apart from having different sex organs.

When John was young he could sing soprano because he had not yet undergone puberty. One of the changes that happens in boys is the change in voice which only happens to males making them different from females.

Final answer:

The change in voice that occurs in boys, like the transition Johann Sebastian Bach experienced, is a characteristic of puberty. This is due to an increase in the production of androgens, which leads to the growth of the larynx and the deepening of the voice.

Explanation:

The change in voice that is mentioned about Johann Sebastian Bach, is a characteristic of puberty in males. Puberty is a biological stage during which a child's body matures into an adult capable of sexual reproduction. It is marked by a rapid growth spurt and the appearance of secondary sexual characteristics, including voice deepening in boys.

This change occurs due to the increased production of androgens—the male sex hormones, particularly testosterone, which causes the larynx (or voice box) to grow and the vocal cords to lengthen and thicken, resulting in a lower-pitched voice. This period of change is an integral part of human development.

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The dominant gene for round red blood cells is S and the recessive gene for sickle-shaped red blood cells is s. Based on their genotypes, which set of parents has the most likely chance of producing a child with sickle-cell disease?
a. SS mother and Ss father
b. Ss mother and SS father
c. Ss mother and Ss father
d. SS mother and SS father

Answers

Answer:

b

Explanation:because the recessive closet to the to the gene that causes is that

In many hairy vertebrates, such as apes, dogs, and rats, the involuntary erection of hair acts as an efficient means of thermoregulation. The erect hairs trap an insulating layer of air against the skin, keeping the animal warm. Humans also display hair erection when cold, though humans are not hairy enough for this reflex to have a significant effect on body temperature. Which statement is true regarding this reflex?
1) It reflects the common ancestry of humans with hairy vertebrates.
2) It suggests humans are less evolved than other hairy vertebrates, because they are not adapted to maintain body temperature.
3) The loss of hairy bodies is an evolutionary disadvantage to humans.
4) The reflex is actually a voluntary response humans manifest during infancy.

Answers

Answer:

It reflects the common ancestry of humans with hairy vertebrates.

Explanation:

Evolution is the change in the species with the passage of time. Some species might get extinct and some species might develop the advance character during the evolutionary process.

The evolutionary history of the organisms can be classified on the basis of the paleontological or molecular evidence. The two groups of the organisms can share a common ancestor if they have some similar features with each other. In the given question, it can be concluded that hairy vertebrates and human might have the common ancestor.

Thus, the correct answer is option (a).

Suppose there is a mutation in a laminin­binding integrin gene that causes a loss of function in thecytoplasmic domains of the integrin. Which of the following would you expect to observe as a result ofthis mutation?A.Tissues would be weakened because the integrin could no longer associate with microfilamentsin adherens junctions.B.The integrin would be unable to signal the cytoplasm when it had bound to the laminin.C.Cell adhesion to laminin would decrease, but laminin­mediated gene expression would remainthe same.D.The integrin would function normally because the cytoplasmic domain is not responsible forbinding to laminin.

Answers

Answer: The integrin would be unable to signal the cytoplasm when it had bound to laminin. (Option B)

Explanation: Mutation (i.e change/alteration in the genetic sequence) in a laminin­ binding integrin gene causes a loss of laminin based functions in the cytoplasm.

The integrin will only bind to laminin in the cytoplasm, because there is alteration in the DNA sequence which codes for initiation of action in the cytoplasm.

Of the dozens of neurotransmitters that have been discovered, how many appear to be especially important in mental disorders?

Answers

Of the dozens of neurotransmitters that have been discovered 4 appear to be especially important in mental disorders.

Explanation:

The signal from one neuron is passed to another neuron with the help of a neuron transmitter. The signal that is produced by one neuron must be responded by another neuron. The receptor of neuron are bounded by the neuron transmitters.

Pre synaptic neurons are those that helps in releasing the neuron transmitters. Postsynaptic neurons are those that are helpful in receiving these neuron transmitter signals. The signals that are also released by neurons in the direct that are in reverse to the above mentioned steps. In metal disorders 4 neuron transmitters are considered to be very important.

True or false: During meiosis, two rounds of DNA synthesis are required to form four gametes from one parent cell.

Answers

Answer:

False

Explanation:

During meiosis two round of cell division occurs after the replication which allow the formation of four haploid cells. Meiosis takes place in gametic cells.  

During the first round of meiotic cell division, the homologous chromosome gets separated into two daughter cell and during the second round of meiotic cell division, each sister chromatids gets separated into two new daughter cells.

So during meiosis two round of cell division takes place not two round of replication takes place. Therefore the statement is false.

Final answer:

The claim that two rounds of DNA synthesis are required during meiosis is false; only one round of DNA replication occurs before meiosis I, followed by a second division in meiosis II, resulting in four haploid gametes from one parent cell.

Explanation:

The statement that two rounds of DNA synthesis are required during meiosis to form four gametes from one parent cell is false. In meiosis, there is only one round of DNA replication before the first division, known as meiosis I. This is followed by a second round of division, meiosis II, which does not involve further DNA synthesis. The process of meiosis starts with a diploid cell, which after DNA replication, divides twice to produce four haploid gametes, each genetically unique.

Human sperms are indeed haploid, meaning they have half the number of chromosomes of a diploid body cell. Sister chromatids do not separate during meiosis I; instead, they separate during meiosis II. In meiosis I, it is the homologous chromosomes that separate. After a single cell completes meiosis, four cells are produced.

100 POINTS!!! Help!!!

A series of coral reefs is located near a coastline. In 3–5 sentences, construct an argument about how people can help prevent erosion to the coastline.

Answers

Answer:

We can prevent erosion by not disturbing the coral reefs and help them build more near the coastline. The structure of the coral reefs helps to prevent the loss of life and it also prevents erosion. The coral reefs act as a barrier against the water flows such as waves or floods. In this way they prevent erosion by serving as natural barriers. Hence, erosion can be prevented if more coral reefs are allowed to grow near the coastline.

Final answer:

To prevent erosion to the coastline near coral reefs, people can avoid using harmful chemicals, implement sewage treatment systems, and create buffer zones of plants or sand dunes.

Explanation:

In order to help prevent erosion to the coastline near the series of coral reefs, people can take several actions. First, they can avoid using harmful chemicals and pesticides in their gardens or farms that could contaminate the water and harm marine life. Second, implementing effective sewage treatment systems can prevent the discharge of untreated wastewater into the oceans. Third, creating buffer zones of plants or sand dunes can reduce the impact of waves and protect the coastline from erosion.

A cation that is more abundant as a solute in the cytosol of a neuron than it is in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is A) HCO3-. B) Cl-. C) Ca++. D) Na+. E) K+.

Answers

Final answer:

Potassium ions (K+) have a greater concentration inside a neuron's cytosol than in the interstitial fluid outside of the neuron. The resting potential of the neuron is maintained through a greater concentration of Na+ ions outside the cell, with the sodium-potassium pump regulating ion levels by pumping two K+ ions into the neuron for every three Na+ ions pumped out.

Explanation:

The correct answer to this question is E) K+. Potassium ions (K+) are more abundant in the cytosol of a neuron as compared to the interstitial fluid outside the neuron. To maintain the resting potential of the neuron, there is a higher concentration of K+ inside the neuron and a higher concentration of Na+ ions outside the neuron. This is maintained by the sodium-potassium pump, which pumps two K+ ions into the cell for every three Na+ ions it pumps out.

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Final answer:

The cation that is more abundant in the cytosol of a neuron than in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is K+ (potassium ion).

Explanation:

The cation that is more abundant as a solute in the cytosol of a neuron than it is in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is K+ (potassium ion).

At resting potential, sodium ions (Na+) are more highly concentrated outside the cell in the extracellular fluid, while potassium ions (K+) are more highly concentrated near the membrane in the cytoplasm or intracellular fluid. This is maintained by sodium-potassium pumps in the cell membranes, which actively transport three sodium ions out of the cell for every two potassium ions in, creating a net negative charge inside the cell.

Therefore, the correct answer is E) K+.

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What type of bonds are formed between nitrogenous bases of DNA?*

A. hydrogen bonds

B. glycolic bonds

C. james bonds

Answers

Answer: A. Hydrogen Bonds

A hydrogen bonds is correct

Describe a situation from the news or recent history where scientists were called upon to provide explanations of events and offer possible solutions to problems.

Answers

Answer:

Scientists obtain a great deal of the evidence they use by observing natural and experimentally generated objects and effects. Much of the standard philosophical literature on this subject comes from 20th century logical empiricists, their followers, and critics who embraced their issues and accepted some of their assumptions even as they objected to specific views. Their discussions of observational evidence tend to focus on epistemological questions about its role in theory testing. This entry follows their lead even though observational evidence also plays important and philosophically interesting roles in other areas including scientific discovery, the development of experimental tools and techniques, and the application of scientific theories to practical problems.

The issues that get the most attention in the standard philosophical literature on observation and theory have to do with the distinction between observables and unobservables, the form and content of observation reports, and the epistemic bearing of observational evidence on theories it is used to evaluate.

Explanation:

Answer:

climate change, as the year goes on the globe gets warmer and warmer and it's not slowing down. Thanks to scientists, they have done years of research to help to make the earth more eco friendly to stop the rise in climate change.

An athletic woman has just discovered she is 6 to 8 weeks pregnant. From the list of her usual sports and activities, which activity should be discussed in further detail since it is contraindicated during pregnancy?

Answers

Answer:

Activity and sports during pregnancy should be limited, should avoid exercises with high risk involved

Explanation:

These below mentioned activities are not suggested during 6th to 8th weeks pregnant period, they are as follows

Holding the breath while exercising may affect both the child as well as the mother, since both  the fetus as well as the mother need constant supply of oxygen.Avoid twisty motions.Maintain  the sense of balance and not risking any sort of trauma to the abdomen.Avoid the exercise when feel fatigued.Exercise to the back side of the body is not suggested during the second trimester.

Final answer:

An athletic woman who is 6 to 8 weeks pregnant should be cautious about engaging in high-impact or contact sports due to the risk to herself and the developing fetus. It's crucial to avoid harmful substances and consult a healthcare provider for advice on safe physical activities during pregnancy.

Explanation:

An athletic woman who has just discovered she is 6 to 8 weeks pregnant should be particularly cautious about the sports and activities she engages in during pregnancy. Among her usual activities, those with a high risk of impact falls, or abdominal trauma should be discussed in detail for potential contraindications. Activities like contact sports, high-impact aerobics, and extreme sports are generally considered risky. A pregnant woman must avoid toxins and engage in healthy behaviors that encourage normal fetal growth and development. Substances such as alcohol, illegal drugs, and certain medications can severely harm the embryo or fetus, especially during the first eight weeks after fertilization when the major organs are forming.

In conclusion, understanding the implications of specific exercises and sports during pregnancy can help ensure both the mother's and the unborn child's safety and well-being. Consulting a healthcare provider for personalized advice is always recommended for pregnant women wanting to continue their athletic pursuits.

According to Leech, the English of direct address advertising tends to be very homogeneous, so that all direct address voiceovers share many linguistic features ling.

A. True
B. False

Answers

Answer: A - True

Explanation:

According to Leech, it remains a generally accepted fact that the English of direct address advertising tends to be very homogeneous, so that all direct address voiceovers share many linguistic features ling.

So the answer is True.

The case of Phineas Gage suggests that the _____ lobes regulate our personality. These lobes are largely responsible for much of what makes us uniquely human.

Answers

Answer:

Frontal Lobe

Explanation:

The structure of the brain is divided into four lobes namely: frontal lobe, occipital, temporal and parietal lobes.

The lobe in the front or frontal lobe is situated in the front portion of the cranium and  is highly vulnerable to the injury. The front lobe is associated with the emotional control and personality traits like it controls the motor functions, social and sexual behaviour, language and memory.

Since the frontal lobe controls the social and sexual behaviour, therefore, the frontal lobe is correct.

Thus, Frontal Lobe is the correct answer.

Answer:

the frontal lobe

Explanation:

I took the test and that was the answer

A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client?

Answers

Answer:

High-protein

Explanation:

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a disease in which there is obstruction of the lungs which makes it difficult for the person to breathe and there is an improper flow of the air in the respiratory tract. The disease management involves a proper diet which should have a high amount of proteins in it. A high protein diet is recommended for the patients as this leads to the strengthening of the muscles involved in the respiration and thus, avoids wasting and slows down the progressive worsening of the disease. Further, the high protein diet also helps to strengthen immunity and prevents infections of the respiratory tract. The proteins also provide more energy as sufferers of the disease also have difficulty performing activities such as walking, running, etc due to shortness of breath.

The nurse has entered a client's room and observed that the client has removed the mattress from the bed and is closely scrutinizing the spaces in the bed frame. Which statement is most likely to elicit an explanation of the client's behavior?

Answers

Answer:

a) "It looks like you're searching for something. Is that right?"

Explanation:

In order to elicit an explanation with the patient, the nurse has to ask a question that is polite. To which a positive response will be given.

The statement "It looks like you're searching for something. Is that right?" will make the patient see the nurse wants to help him hence he will give a positive answer.

The other statements such as:

"What are you looking for in the bed? There's nothing hidden there." "Are you having any delusions or hallucinations right now?" "What's wrong with your bed?"

Are rude and they will only make the patient get agitated and no explanation will be given.

In what position should the ankles, knees, and hips be during the takeoff position of the squat jump?

Answers

90 degree angle for the knees/legs

The planet Mercury is closer to the sun than the planet Venus. However, temperatures on Venus are hotter than temperatures on Mercury. Why would this be the case?A) Mercury has a thicker atmosphere than Venus that blocks heat from the sun.B) Mercury spins more quickly than Venus, so its surface cannot heat up as quickly.C) Venus has a thicker atmosphere than Mercury that traps heat from the sun.D) Venus is cooled by high concentrations of water vapor in its atmosphere.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is B to my own knowledge

Which viral genome is likely to require an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase for transciption upon viral entry?

Answers

Answer:

(-) sense single-stranded RNA

Explanation:

Negative sense refers to viruses that use the negative sense single stranded RNA as their genetic material.

It is essential for the negative viral strand is complimentary to the mRNA so it is converted to a positive RNA by RNA polymerase.  

Negative sense single stranded RNA virus require an RNA dependent RNA polymerase for transcription.  This is because it essential in encoding proteins by catalyzing the complimentary RNA strand to the given RNA tempelate.  

"In experiments using T2 viruses to discern the genetic material, certain elements were radioactively labeled. Which radioactive material in T2 viruses was found in bacteria?

Answers

Answer:

Phosphorus-32

Explanation:

Alfred D. Hershey and Martha Chase radiolabelled phosphorus as 32P and sulfur as 35S. This was done to observe if the radio labeled sulfur-containing protein coat or the radio-labeled P containing DNA enters the host cell. They showed that when the bacterial virus T2 infects Escherichia coli cells, the radioactive phosphorus-containing DNA of the viral particle enters the host cells. The host cells do not show the radio-labeled sulfur-containing protein of the viral coat. This proved that DNA, not the proteins is the genetic material.

If an ethical hacker breaks the limit placed upon a test, there may be sufficient cause for a client to take legal action against the ethical hacker.A. true
B. false

Answers

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

Ethics is the moral psychology or philosophy that are used to determine the write or wrong things. The ethics is used in all the subjects and in all the services.

The ethical hacker may be defined as the individual that has hacked the information or break the rules that are against the ethics or moral value. The legal actions must be taken against the ethical hacker so that the ethics cannot be violated next time.

Thus, the correct answer is true.

The palpable hip bone projections in the front of the body felt when you put your hands on your hips are the posterior inferior iliac spines.True / False.

Answers

Answer:

false

Explanation:

The bone of the pelvic girdle which has four bony projections is termed as ilium.The four bony projections present on the ilium are called as iliac spines.The iliac spines acts as points where the muscles and ligaments can attach. The four projections are :Anterior superior iliac spineAnterior inferior iliac spinePosterior superior iliac spinePosterior inferior iliac spine

Out of these four spines it is the anterior superior iliac spines that are palpable and are felt while putting hands on the hips.

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The anterior superior lilac spine can be palpable with hands on the hips

Other Questions
The zone of proximal development refers to the gap between the actual developmental level of a child versus the potential developmental level that the child is capable of with some assistance by more knowledgeable others.a) trueb) false The duck pond games at the carnival has a pool with 75 toy ducks twenty five of these ducks are marked underneath as winners. To play you pick up a duck do not replace it then pick up another what is the probability that both ducks picked are winners? A nurse overhears another nurse make a statement that indicates racism. The nurse makes this determination based on which characteristic indicative of social value?A. Skin colorB. LanguageC. DressD. Size If the total fixed costs increase, does this change average (total) costs? How about average variable costs? Using this information together with the standard enthalpies of formation of O2(g), CO2(g), and H2O(l) from Appendix C, calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of acetone. . In pea plants, the allele for tall plants (T) is dominant to the allele for short plants (t). You observe that the offspring of a cross include 78 tall plants and 27 short plants. a. What was the probable allele combination of the two parent plants? b. How would your answer change if the offspring included 121 tall plants and 118 short plants? The most relevant information from a family health tree includes age and major diseases, as well as cause of death for deceased relatives______________. two third of 18 is equal to 2/5 of what number ?a. 12b. 20c. 30d. 60 17. Mrs. Turner baked 120 cookies. Shedecided to give 1/6 of them to her students.How many did she take to her students? Use the power property to rewrite log3x^9 there are two numbers which add up to be 29. If one number is one more than the other find the two numbers What is the minimum number of binary bits needed to represent each of the following unsigned decimal integers? a. 65 Francis invested $20,000. Some was invested in bonds that made a 4% profit, and the rest was put into stocks that made an 8% profit. How much did Francis invest in bonds if his total profit on both types of investments was $1,120? Which of the following best describes a fault? a. A giant gap or canyon at the Earth's surface. b. A cave or large hole hidden under the ground c. Where the continent meets the ocean. d. A giant underground chamber usually filled with magma. e. Fractured rock that has been displaced, i.e., rocks on one side of the fracture have moved relative to the other side. Corporate decision makers and analysts often use a particular technique, called a DuPont analysis, to better understand the factors that drive a company's financial performance, as reflected by its return on equity (ROE). By using the DuPont equation, which disaggregates the ROE into three components, analysts can see why a company's ROE may have changed for the better or worse, and identify particular company strengths and weaknesses The DuPont Equation A DuPont analysis is conducted using the DuPont equation, which helps to identify and analyze three important factors that drive a company's ROE. According to the equation, which of the following factors directly affect a company's ROE? Check all that apply Price per Share Earnings per Share Sales / Total Assets Net Income/ Sales Most investors and analysts in the financial community pay particular attention to a company's ROE. The ROE can be calculated simply by dividing a firm's net income by the firm's shareholder's equity, and it can be subdivided into the key factors that drive the ROE. Investors and analysts focus on these drivers to develop a clearer picture of what is happening within a company. An analyst gathered the following data and calculated the various terms of the DuPont equation for three companies: ROE 12.0% 15.5% 21.5% Profit Margin x Total Assets Turnover x Equity Multiplier Company A Company B Company C 57.3% 58.2% 58.0% 9.8 10.2 10.3 2.14 2.61 3.60 Referring to these data, which of the following conclusions will be true about the companies' ROEs? O The main driver of company A's inferior ROE, as compared to that of company B's and company C's ROE, is its use of higher debt financing O The main driver of company A's inferior ROE, as compared to that of company C's ROE, is its higher total asset turnover ratio The main driver of company C's superior ROE, as compared to that of company A's and company B's ROE, is its greater use of debt financing A client has a history of sickle cell anemia with several sickle cell crises over the past 10 years. What blood component results in sickle cell anemia? How Does the Nervous System Operate? Jorge takes a drink offered to him at a party. The next thing he knows, he wakes up in the middle of a field and cannot recall the nights events. Walter and Joanna have been trying to have a baby for over a year. Walter's Aunt Rae tells them not to worry because a friend of her neighbor's daughter had the same problem and then had two children in rapid succession. Walter and Joanna are more inclined to see a specialist rather than rely on Aunt Rae's advice because it reflects:____________. Study the map below Which number cirresponds to the butterfield-overland trail?A. 1B. 3C. 4D. 5 Suppose that ? Is an angle with csc(?)=-12/5 and ? Is not in the third quadrant. Compute the exact value of Tan(?). You dont have to rationalize the denominator.I think the answer is -5/rad119, but Im not sure Steam Workshop Downloader