How many times more ATP can be formed by an electron transport chain than can be formed by a citric acid cycle?

2

16

32

64

Answers

Answer 1
It should be 32 ATPs, since the electron transport chain produces 34(38) ATPs, and the citric acid cycle produces only 2 ATPs. 34-2=32
Answer 2

Answer:

B. 16 on E2020

Explanation:


Related Questions

He light colored rock pocket mice in New Mexico blend in with the sandy soil of the area, but on darker lava flow, the light color makes them stand out, making them easy prey for owls, hawks, and other visual predators. A gene mutation has produced a darker fur color that makes the some mice better able to survive predators in the lava environment. Over time, the darker colored mice became more common in the area of the lava flow. Why did dark colored rock pocket mice first appear in the population? A) Their environment changed. B) They have a random gene mutation that affects their fur color. C) Individuals within the population had to change color to blend in with the environment D) Predators eat light-colored rock pocket mice, making dark-colored rock pocket mice more likely to survive.

Answers

Answer: option B they have a random gene mutation that affects their fur colour.

Explanation :-

Variation is the phenomena which occurs in all populations.These variations result in slight differences in the phenotypes of individuals .These variations only arise due to random mutations that arise in the individuals’ genome and then can be inherited by their offspring.There is always a probability of one particular trait to make the individuals survive better in the environment as compared to other trait. The individuals having the trait that helps them to survive better in the environment tend to survive more and leave more progeny. This is termed as survival of the fittest. Thus, according to the question it can be inferred that the dark fur colour arose due to a random mutation since it is the only source of variation. Since, in the given environmental conditions the mice having the dark fur colour were less susceptible to the predators they are better fitted to survive.The dark brown fur coat mice, survive better, leave more progeny and hence, increase their population with time. However, the orginal source of origin of this trait was a random mutation. Had this mutation not occured, the dark coloured fur mice would not have been there.

So, a random gene mutation affecting the fur colour made the dark coloured mice first appear in the population.

How does natural selection change the frequency of genes or traits over many generations? Biology students conducted an experiment mimicking genetic variation and coloration. Students used different colored beans to represent animals that might be prey: mice, for example. A student in each group was the predator: a hawk. Beans (mice) were randomly scattered on multicolored floor tiles, each color within four tiles. The hawk collected mice (beans) for 10 seconds. Mice not eaten reproduced. Three generations of data a shown in the table.

 Speckled and striped beans (mice) had the best survival rates. Why?

please mark me brainiest. answer is

B) Coloration was a form of camouflage.  

To introduce a particular piece of DNA into an animal cell, such as that of a mouse, you would find more probable success with which of the following methods?
A) the shotgun approach
B) electroporation followed by recombination
C) introducing a plasmid into the cell
D) infecting the mouse cell with a Ti plasmid
E) transcription and translation

Answers

The correct answer is option B, that is, electroporation succeeded by recombination.  

A usual method of presenting exogenous nucleic acids into cells is known as electroporation. In this, an electric voltage potential is used through a biological membrane, ultimately resulting in the formation of conducting hydrophilic pores. The process of electroporation is utilized for transporting or transfecting nucleic acids generally DNA within the cells, to make them articulate genes that would modify the genetic mechanism.  

The transfected DNA can get recombined or incorporated into the host genome or can remain in its own composition. Thus, the process of electroporation straightforwardly permits more recombination to take place.  


Final answer:

To introduce DNA into an animal cell, electroporation followed by recombination is the most probable successful method, as it creates temporary pores to allow DNA entry and subsequent genomic integration.

Explanation:

To introduce a particular piece of DNA into an animal cell, such as that of a mouse, you would find more probable success with electroporation followed by recombination. This method is suitable for eukaryotic cells like those of mice, which require more invasive techniques for the insertion of foreign DNA compared to prokaryotic cells. Electroporation creates temporary pores in the cell membrane via a brief electric pulse, allowing DNA to be introduced into the cell. Subsequently, recombination allows the foreign DNA to be integrated into the host cell's genome.

Other methods, such as microinjection, may also be used to directly inject DNA into the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. However, techniques like introducing a plasmid are more commonly used for bacterial transformation, and Ti plasmids are typically involved in transforming plant cells, not animal cells. Transcription and translation are processes related to gene expression after the DNA has been successfully inserted into a cell.

What is humidity. A: the amount of water vapor per a unit of air. B: the amount of water vapor in the air at a given time and place. C: the temperature at which the water vapor in the air condensed into liquid.

Answers

the answer is A hope this helps.

The amount of water vapor in the air

For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogen of the DNA, rather than the phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogens. Thus, labeling the nitrogens would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. Why won't this experiment work?
A) There is no radioactive isotope of nitrogen.
B) Radioactive nitrogen has a half-life of 100,000 years, and the material would be too dangerous for too long.
C) Avery et al. have already concluded that this experiment showed inconclusive results.
D) Although there are more nitrogens in a nucleotide, labeled phosphates actually have 16 extra neutrons; therefore, they are more radioactive.
E) Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins.

Answers

Answer is (E) : Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins.

Let me explain you why. Hershey and Chase conducted their experiment to show what is the genetic material that passes from one generation to another generation. Is it protein or DNA? For explaining this, they allowed the virus to grow in the presence of two different radio active elements.

In one set they grew viruses in the presence of P-32 radio-active element  

In another set they grew viruses in the presence of S-35 radio active element.

The reason why they choose these two radio-active element was, phosphorus is present in DNA but not in proteins and similarly sulphur is found in proteins but not DNA.

These viruses were allowed to infect bacteria and the later was observed to be radio-actively labelled with P-32 but not S-35. This clearly showed that DNA is the genetic material which was passed from virus to bacteria.  

Now if you choose Nitrogen for labeling, it won't help you in getting any conclusion since nitrogen is present in both proteins and DNA.

Final answer:

The experiment wouldn't work because nitrogen is present in both DNA and proteins, preventing a clear distinction between the two. The original Hershey and Chase experiment used radioactive phosphorus and sulfur to clearly distinguish DNA from proteins.

Explanation:

The reason the modified Hershey and Chase experiment would not work if nitrogen were labeled instead of phosphate is that amino acids, and thus proteins, also contain nitrogen atoms. This means using radioactive nitrogen would not effectively distinguish between DNA and proteins because both would be labeled.

The original Hershey and Chase experiment used radioactive sulfur to label proteins and radioactive phosphorus to label DNA, capitalizing on the fact that phosphorus is found in DNA, but not typically in proteins, and sulfur is found in some amino acids but not in DNA. This allowed for a clear distinction when determining whether DNA or proteins were the genetic material transmitted by viruses during infection of bacteria.

A protein called RB normally blocks cell cycle progression from G1 to S. Phosphorylation inactivates RB. Which of the following, related to RB and its function, might result in a cell turning cancerous?

(A)increase in RB levels
(B)loss of RB phosphorylation
(C)overproduction of kinases that phosphorylate RB
(D)inactivation of the DNA replication machinery in S

Answers

A.increase RB levels

please help for brainliest!

Answers

Answer:

Commensalism

Explanation:

Commensalism is when one organism benefits and the other doesn't benefit and is also not harmed. The tree is helping the orchid and the orchid isn't benefiting or harming the tree.

If all disease is eradicated and food supply exceeds demand indefinitely, the human population on the planet Earth will NOT continue to grow at an exponential rate indefinitely because space will become a limiting factor. all of these the few humans left will war and kill each other. a new disease organism will evolve. density-independent factors will always remove individuals.

Answers

Is this a question or answer..I can't understand

Sugar is translocated in phloem from a source, or an area of ____, to a sink, or an area of ____. a. low pressure; equal low pressure b. high sugar concentration; low sugar concentration c. negative water potential; positive water potential d. low sugar concentration; high sugar concentration e. positive water potential; negative water potential

Answers

It is B. The first area is a leaf,  where sugar is produced. the second area can be anything: flowers, fruits, roots, stems.

Sugar is translocated in phloem from a source, or an area of high sugar concentration, to a sink, or an area of low sugar concentration.

What is phloem?

The phloem and xylem are two vascular tissues present in higher plants such as angiosperm plants.

The phloem is a tissue required to transport different types of organic materials and food in plants.

Sugar is a product of plant photosynthesis that is transported by this tissue.

In conclusion, sugar is translocated in phloem from a source, or an area of high sugar concentration, to a sink, or an area of low sugar concentration.

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As a population reaches its carrying capacity, resources become more scarce. Which of the following would increase within the population?
a. birthrate
b. competition
c. nesting sites
d. available shelter

Answers

I think it’s B. the less resources there are to go around, the more the population has to compete for their survival.

Birthdate wouldn’t go up, because with less resources it would be harder to keep the population growing.
Nesting sites and available shelter wouldn’t increase, because with more animals taking up more and more space, it’s less possible to find more room in the habitat.

As a population reaches its carrying capacity, COMPETITION would increase within the population (Option b).

The carrying capacity refers to the maximum population size of a given species that can be sustained in a specific environment.

The carrying capacity depends on biotic factors (e.g., competition, presence of predators) and abiotic factors (e.g., habitat, water resources, etc).

Individuals within a population compete for food resources, water, habitat, mates, etc, thereby affecting the carrying capacity of the population.

In conclusion, as a population reaches its carrying capacity, COMPETITION would increase within the population (Option b).

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Which tools do meteorologists use to help create weather forecasts? Check all that apply.

-guesses
-computer models
-weather service maps
-data from instruments
-personal observations

Answers

computer models, weather service maps, data from instruments, and personal observations

Answer:

computer models, weather service maps, data from instruments, and personal observations

Explanation:

Meteorology is the interdisciplinary science of the physics of the atmosphere, which studies the state of time, the atmospheric environment, the phenomena produced and the laws that govern it.

In general, each science has its own laboratory equipment and instruments. However, meteorology is a short discipline in laboratory equipment and wide in observation equipment in the field. In some ways this may sound good, but in reality it can cause simple observations to drift towards a wrong assertion. In the atmosphere, there are many objects or qualities that can be measured. The rain, for example, has been observed anywhere and always, being one of the first phenomena to be measured historically.

Where do clouds form? Check all that apply. at the ground in the upper atmosphere near the Earth’s surface where the air has very low humidity where the atmosphere contains few particles

Answers

Clouds form when air reaches the dew point and condenses around particles in the atmosphere; they can form near the Earth's surface or in the upper atmosphere but not in areas with low humidity or few particles.

When the air in the atmosphere reaches the dew point and contains enough particles like dust or smoke to provide condensation nuclei, condensation occurs and clouds are formed. Clouds that form at the ground level are known as fog. It is incorrect that clouds form where the air has very low humidity because clouds require a certain level of humidity to maintain the water droplets or ice crystals that make up the cloud. Furthermore, without particles in the air, there would be nothing for the water vapor to condense around, so clouds typically do not form in areas with very few particles.

This type of membrane transport moves substances against the concentration gradient from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration using membrane protiens as carriers and requires the input of atp

Answers

Its called active transport. We call it active since it requires energy for the transport of molecules against the concentration gradient. ATP must break down to release energy for the process.

What was discovered in 1965 and is believed to be leftover thermal energy from the big bang?

Answers

The expansion of the universe

Answer:

Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) radiation was discovered in the year 1965

Explanation:

The Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) are a type of electromagnetic radiation which were believed to be the remnant of thermal energy from the big bang. Soon after the big bang explosion, the universe started to form and the CMB radiations were extensively radiated in all the direction. The universe then started to inflate rapidly and expanded. This expansion of the universe is still continuing. The CMB is very important because it helps in determining how the universe started to form in its initial time. These CMB radiations describes about the composition as well as the age of the universe.

What is the mutation caused by the addition of a nucleotide to an already existing gene sequence called?
A.
deletion
B.
duplication
C.
insertion
D.
inversion

Answers

Answer:
An insertion mutation occurs when an extra nucleotide is added to the DNA strand during replication. This can happen when the replicating strand "slips," or wrinkles, which allows the extra nucleotide to be incorporated.

Answer:

C.  

insertion

Explanation:

Can someone please help?

What information does the National Weather Service produce? Check all that apply.

-simple maps
-newspaper maps
-maps with isobars
-maps with isotherms
-weather service maps

Answers

Im almost certain that is all of them except for A.

Answer:

The National Weather Service produce the following information:

-maps with isobars

-maps with isotherms

-weather service maps

Explanation:

The National Meteorological Service is one of the six scientific agencies that make up the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) of the government of the United States. Its task is to offer "predictions and warnings of meteorological, hydrological and climatic conditions in the United States, its territories, adjacent waters and ocean areas, for the protection of life and property and the improvement of the national economy".

Explain why baleen whales are more efficient feeders in the ocean food web.

Answers

Answer:

Baleen whales, are largest mammals on earth. These whales use specialized structures which is known as baleen to capture it's prey. A baleen functions as a sieve to filter out prey from water. Numerous baleens are present in the upper jaw of the whale.  Baleens are flexible structural appendages made from the protein keratin present in the place of tooth in toothless baleen whales. A baleen whale opens it's mouth to consume water from the ocean. This water contains large amount of prey population. It then partly shuts the mouth and presses the tongue against the upper jaw. The water passes off from the sideways by baleens. The prey is then swallowed by the whale. A baleen whale is able to capture zooplanktons such as krills and copepods and small fishes from the food chain because of these specialized structures.  

A baleen whale does not hunt for it's prey as it exhibit specialized structures to capture the prey. Therefore, it is the most efficient feeder in the ocean food web.


A normal strand of DNA is shown below, followed by the same strand of DNA after mutations have occurred. Identify the mutation and the effect it would have on protein synthesis.

A) This mutation is a point mutation resulting from a base substitution. This would results in the different reading of the one codon affected by the mutation, causing the substitution of a different amino acid in an otherwise unaltered protein.
B) This mutation is a deletion mutation resulting in a frameshift. This would result in a different reading of the codons following the mutation, causing a different translation from the original strand. The protein being created could be abnormally short, abnormally long, and will most likely not be functional.
C) This mutation is an addition mutation resulting in a frameshift. This would result in a different reading of the codons following the mutation, causing a different translation from the original strand. The protein being created could be abnormally short, abnormally long, and will most likely not be functional.
D) This mutation is a substitution mutation resulting in a frameshift. This would result in a different reading of the codons following the mutation, causing a different translation from the original strand. The protein being created could be abnormally short, abnormally long, and will most likely not be functional.

Answers

The answer to this question is b

B) This mutation is a deletion mutation resulting in a frameshift. This would result in a different reading of the codons following the mutation, causing a different translation from the original strand. The protein being created could be abnormally short, abnormally long, and will most likely not be functional.

Frameshift mutations, depending on their placement, tend to create massive changes in protein structure by changing all of the codons following the mutation. Frameshift mutations are apparent in severe genetic diseases such as Tay–Sachs disease and they increase susceptibility to certain cancers and classes of familial high cholesterol levels.


Based on the above is the term "gender test" accurate in this case? Why or why not?

Answers

Final answer:

The term "gender test" is not accurate in this case. It should be referred to as a "sex test" as it focuses on determining an athlete's biological sex for eligibility in sex-specific events.

Explanation:

In this case, the term "gender test" is not accurate. The term sex should be used instead of gender because the testing is focused on biological sex rather than gender identity. Sex refers to the biological or physical distinctions between male and female, while gender refers to the cultural and societal expectations and roles associated with being male or female.

The testing conducted during the Olympics is aimed at determining the eligibility of athletes to compete in sex-specific events based on their biological sex. It is not about testing their gender identity or masculinity. Men have not undergone this testing because they do not compete in women's events. Any discussion of masculinity or feminine performance is not relevant to these sex-specific events.

Therefore, it is crucial to use the term "sex test" rather than "gender test" in this case to accurately reflect the purpose and context of the testing.

Fruits are important in plant reproduction as
A) they protect the seeds
B) aid in dispersal of seeds via wind, water or animals
C) provide nutrition to germinating plant embryos
D) A & B
E) A, B & C

Answers

D) A & B

it protects the seed against any damage or harmful weather conditions and also helps in dispersal of the seed through different means.

Fill in the blank 1. _______ digestion occurs in the small intestine through the action of enzymes. 2. Urea, excess water, and other waste materials are eliminated in a water fluid called ___________. 3. __________ can cause infections by injecting DNA or RNA into hosts. 4. The human immune system produces ___________ in response to a vaccine, which later can bind to and destroy a pathogen if it invades. 5. _______________ are structures that link bone to bone at a joint 6. In the heart, blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle, where it is pumped to the _______________


The words I can use are:

lymphocytes

gliding

pivot

gas

urine

absorption

dermis

fulcrum

lungs

chemical

viruses

capillary

vertebrae

esophagus

tendons

antibodies

synapses

ligaments

kidneys

pathogens

Answers

Blank 1 is protein digestion

Blank 2 is urine

Blank 3 is Viruses

Blank 4 is  pathogens

Blank 5 Achilles tendon

Blank 6 atrium

A short mRNA sequence is shown in the box below. Determine the DNA sequence from which this mRNA sequence was transcribed.

Answers

TAC-AGA-CTA-ACC-ATG

When transcribing DNA sequence from mRNA A is T, U is A, Cis G and G is C

TAC-AGA-CTA-ACC-ATG  THIS SHOUD BE THE RIGHT ANSWER I AM 99.99% SURE

What are the two functional groups founWhat are the two functional groups found in every amino acid? A. carbonyl and hydroxyl B. carboxyl and amino C. amino and hydroxyl D. sulfhydryl and carboxyl in every amino acid?

Answers

The two functional groups found on every amino acid carboxyl acid and an amine. So the option is B.

Ans.

The amino acids are organic molecules, having two functional groups, a carboxyl group (-COOH) and an amino group (-NH2) along with a side chain (R group) and a hydrogen atom. The amino acids are known as building blocks of protein molecules as join together to make protein.

Two amino acids join together with the help of a peptide bond, formed  between carboxyl group of one amino acid and amino group of another amino acid.

Thus, the correct answer is option B). 'carboxyl and amino group.'

Which of the following organisms shows a haplonic form of sexual reproduction?
A) Fungi
B) animals
C) plants
D) A & B
E) A, B & C

Answers

all show it thow mostly for animals and plants

Which of the following terms best matches this definition: The process where humans choose the traits that will be present in the next generation through breeding.

Question 4 options:

Genetic determinism


Artificial selection


Acquired selection


Natural selection

Answers

Acquired selection because you choose what traits are present and you acquire what traits you wanted.

The cross bridge cycle starts when _________. Select the best answer. View Available Hint(s) Select the best answer. ATP binds to troponin and is hydrolyzed to ADP and Pi Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to troponin acetylcholine diffuses away from the synaptic cleft Ca2+ is actively transported into the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to tropomyosin

Answers

Final answer:

The cross bridge cycle in a muscle contraction begins when calcium ions (Ca2+) bind to the protein troponin. This triggers the exposure of myosin-binding sites on actin, allowing myosin to bind and create cross-bridges, causing contraction. ATP plays a key role in breaking these cross-bridges and re-cocking myosin heads for the next cycle.

Explanation:

The cross bridge cycle in a skeletal muscle contraction starts when Ca2+ (calcium ions) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to troponin. This triggers a conformational change in tropomyosin, exposing the myosin-binding sites on the actin filament. This allows myosin heads to bind to these sites, creating cross-bridges. While bound, the myosin heads perform a power stroke, pulling the actin filament towards the center of the sarcomere. An ATP molecule then binds to the myosin head, leading to the detachment of the cross-bridge, and the breakdown of ATP to ADP and Pi, effectively 'recocking' the myosin head, making it ready for a new cycle once more Ca2+ becomes available, and the myosin-binding sites on actin get exposed again.

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Question 20

Sort the pictures below into the correct order of the stages of mitosis.

(PLEASE ANSWER THIS)

Answers

the order is 1, 5, 3, 4, 2.

hope this helps xx

The correct order of the pictures below is 1. Prophase 2. Prometaphase 3. Metaphase 4. Anaphase 5. Telophase.

Image 1: Prophase

Chromosomes condense and become visible.

Nuclear envelope breaks down.

Spindle fibers begin to form.

Image 2: Prometaphase

Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores, which are protein complexes on the centromeres of chromosomes.

Chromosomes begin to move towards the center of the cell.

Image 3: Metaphase

Chromosomes align along the metaphase plate, which is an imaginary plane at the center of the cell.

Image 4: Anaphase

Sister chromatids separate and are pulled towards opposite poles of the cell by the spindle fibers.

Image 5: Telophase

Nuclear envelopes reform around the two daughter nuclei.

Chromosomes decondense and become less visible.

Spindle fibers break down.

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A cross between two plants that have pink flowers produced plants that have red , pink, or white flowers. What is the most likely explanation for these results

Answers

That species has genes that yield red, pink or white flowers.  The pink gene is dominant. All hybrids contain red/white genes, but they are recessive. Thus, the cross can unite red/white genes in hybrids with no pink, yielding red/white flowers.  

The genes of that species can produce flowers that are red, pink, or white. There is a dominant pink gene.

What is the importance of incomplete dominance?

It explains how phenotypes from two different alleles can coexist, imperfect dominance has genetic significance.

Mendel also discusses the Law of Dominance, which states that only one allele can be dominant over the other and that it can come from either parent.

Red/white genes are present in all hybrids, although they are recessive. In hybrids without pink, the cross can therefore combine red/white genes to produce red/white flowers.

Both alleles will express equally in the heterozygote because neither is dominant over the other in codominance.

Therefore, incomplete dominance is most likely explanation for these results.

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What is humus?
A) A term to describe soil that is not fertile.
B) The broken down remains of plants and animals.
C) A type of soil that cannot retain water for long.
D) A mixture of man-made articles such as plastic and glass.

Answers

the answer would be B. Humus is the organic component of soil, formed by the decomposition of leaves and other plant material by soil microorganisms.

Answer:

b) The broken down remains of plants and animals.

Explanation:

Humus is the broken down remains of plants & animals and it is rich in nutrients. Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.

An 11-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 dm. which classic symptoms should the nurse assess the patient for? recurrent infections, visual changes, fatigue, and paresthesias vomiting; abdominal pain; sweet, fruity breath; dehydration; and kussmaul breathing weakness, vomiting, hypotension, and mental confusion polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss

Answers

The correct answer is polydipsia, polyuria, weight loss, and polyphagia.  

The classic signs of type I diabetes mellitus comprise polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, and polyphagia. The recurrent infections and visual changes are the signs of diabetes. Weakness, hypotension, and mental confusion are the signs of hypoglycemia. Abdominal pain, vomiting, and sweet breath are the sign of diabetic ketoacidosis.  


please help me on this

Answers

Dad: TtBb

Mom: ttbb

You have to use distribution for dihybrid crosses.  Meaning, the first allele of each trait has a equal chance of being paired with the other allele of the other trait.  So for example with Dad, I will number the traits:

T(1)t(2)B(3)b(4)

To set up the possibilities from Dad, it would be 13, 14, 23, 24: TB, Tb, tB, tb.  Same idea goes for Mom, except since all alleles are the same, you only need to make one column for Mom, since if you did all 4, the other 3 would just be repeats of the 1.

Cross:

                 tb

TB           TtBb

Tb           Ttbb

tB            ttBb

tb            ttbb

The phenotypic ratio is 1 Tall Brown: 1 Tall Blue: 1 Short Brown: 1 Short Blue

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