How does a multicellular organism develop? One cell grows bigger. The cells shrink. The cells differentiate. The cells replicate to form exact copies.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: The cells differentiate.

Explanation:

In biology, differentiation refers to the gradual formation of organs or parts by a process of evolution or development, as when the seed develops the root and the stem, the initial stem develops the leaf, branches, and flower buds;

OR

in animal life, when the germ cell evolves the digestive and other organs and members, or when the animals as they advance in organization acquire special organs for specific purposes.

Note that option A and D explains organism growth NOT development

Answer 2
Final answer:

Multicellular organisms develop from a single cell through cell division and differentiation where cells specialize to perform different functions leading to the growth and functioning of the organism.

Explanation:

A multicellular organism develops from a single cell through a process known as cell differentiation. Initially, the single cell replicates itself to form many exact copies. This is a process called cell division, specifically mitosis, where one cell divides to produce two identical cells. As the organism continues to develop, these cells begin to differentiate, meaning they start to specialize and take on different functions within the organism. Cells could become specific tissues such as muscle cells, nerve cells, or any other type of cells depending on the needs of the organism. This process of cell differentiation allows the multicellular organism to grow and function effectively.

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Related Questions

Which objects in space formed from the huge disk of ice and debris beyond the outer planets? Select two options. Pluto comets Neptune a solar nebula planetesimals

Answers

its c and b im sure

Explanation:

Answer:

solar Nebula and planetesimals

Explanation:

About 4.6 billion years ago, a huge cloud of hydrogen gas and dust collapsed under its own weight, eventually flattening into a disk called the solar nebula. Most of this interstellar material contracted in the center of the disk to form the sun, and some of the gas and dust remaining in this solar nebula condensed to form the planets and the rest of our solar system. In short, a solar nebula is a cloud of gas, dust, ice, debris.

The best theory for the formation of the Solar System and, by extension, other planetary systems, says that the remnants of the Sun's formation eventually condensed to form the planets, the protoplanetary disk - a fine interstellar dust that gradually coalesced and joining debris and ice in ever larger and more massive bodies called planetesimals. This growth produced asteroid-sized bodies that, by the same process of collision and agglutination, gave rise to the planets.

A client with atrial fibrillation has been prescribed Coumadin. What is the rationale for this treatment measure?

Answers

Answer:

Coumadin is prescribed for atrial fibrillation to thin the blood and prevent the formation of clots.

Explanation:

Atrial fibrillation is characterized by inadequate pumping of blood by the atria to the ventricle. Since,the atria are in a state of fibrillation or shaking, they cannot pump blood to the ventricles. This increases the risk of blood clots forming inside the atria that could potentially increase the risk of heart attack or stroke if the clots get lodged in the coronary or carotid arteries.

Coumadin is blood thinner that minimizes the aforementioned risks.

A client has had cholestyramine added to his or her treatment plan for dyslipidemia. What effect will cholestyramine have on the pharmacokinetics of the thiazide diuretic that the client is currently prescribed?

Answers

Answer:

decrease absorption

Explanation:

Cholestyramine has been discovered to cause serum aminotransferase elevations in some cases when combined with thiazide diuretics. This is because the cholesyramine is not absorbed, hence it becomes surprising that it have been discovered to cause asymptomatic serum enzyme elevations.

Which of the following is FALSE? a. Fats are soluble in water. b. Fats are an important energy source for our bodies at rest and during low-intensity exercise. c. Fats are composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. d. Fats yield more Calories per gram than carbohydrate or protein.

Answers

Answer:a. Fats are soluble in water.

Explanation:fats are insoluble in water but are soluble in organic solvent eg acetone,benzene.

Fats stores about twice the same amount of energy as carbonhydrate.

Fat may be saturated or unsaturated.saturated fats do not contain. double bonds but unsaturated fat does.

CnH2n+1COOH is the general formula of saturated fatty acids

Fat is solid at room temp but oil is liquid at room temp.

Most animals stores excess food as fat

Final answer:

The false statement is that fats are soluble in water, which they are not due to their nonpolar nature. The other statements regarding fats being an energy source, their composition, and their caloric content compared to other nutrients are all true.

Explanation:

The false statement amongst the options provided is: a. Fats are soluble in water. This is incorrect because fats, or lipids, are insoluble in water due to their nonpolar nature. The other statements are true: b. Fats are an important energy source for our bodies at rest and during low-intensity exercise, as they provide a major source of energy in these states. c. Fats are composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, which are the elements that make up lipid molecules. d. Fats yield more Calories per gram than carbohydrate or protein; in fact, fats provide about 9 calories per gram, while carbohydrates and proteins only provide about 4 calories per gram.

What is the recommended protein intake for masters-level athletes engaged in muscle strengthening exercises?

Answers

Answer:

40 grams per kg of body weight

Explanation:

Protein are known as the building blocks of muscle and hence are responsible for its building and strengthening. Therefore researchers suggest taking protein after any rigorous exercise or workouts. The standard quantity of protein recommended is 20 grams after 1 hour of exercise. However, high strength athlete must take not less than 40 grams per kg of body weight.  

Proteins are essential for muscle repair after intense exercise session.

Which organism in the food web below gets energy directly from ants?

Answers

Answer: a wattle tree

Explanation:

Which drug is derived from a natural source and may be prescribed for the treatment of osteoporosis?

Answers

Answer:

Teriparatide and  

Calcitonin

Explanation:

Teriparatide drug is extracted from the naturally occurring parathyroid hormone and is also approved by the FDA. This anabolic is taken through injection to promote the growth of bones and increase its density as well.

Along with Teriparatide, Calcitonin is a natural hromone produced by thyroid and is given to patient with osteoporosis. Calcitonin increases the bone mass and density.

Jezelyn needs to create a project that shows reproductive isolation in action and decides to make a video. Which of the following would make the best project?
1. a video that shows a large river that has penguin populations on both sides
2. a video that shows penguin species that have different mating dances
3. a video that shows a penguin that is laying eggs
4. a video that shows penguins in a tidal pool and an open ocean

Answers

Answer: 1. a video that shows a large river that has penguin populations on both sides.

Explanation:

Reproductive isolation is a phenomena which occurs when members of the same species becomes separated due to a geographical, physical or behavioral barrier. The members of the same species after separation adapt to changes and this is the basis of speciation or development of new species.

Option 1 is the correct option as the river is the geographical barrier, between the two separated penguin populations.

Answer:

The answer is B

Explanation:

i got this  one good.

What main etiology would we be concerned about with Pleuritic CP and Tachycardia?

Answers

Answer:

Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

Explanation:

A pulmonary embolism is a condition where one of the main arteries in the lungs is blocked by a substance that has moved from elsewhere in the body through the bloodstream.

This would be a cause for concern for patients with pleuritic CP because patients with PE's usually present with shortness of breath, chest pain particularly upon breathing in and coughing up blood and due to its position in the lungs, it can also be life-threatening. This symptoms are also very similar and can result in a PE being missed completely on examination causing it to be a high risk

Your grandmother unfortunately had a stroke over the weekend. You take her to the doctor, and the doctor says that despite some memory loss, her nondeclarative memory will be fine.With what form of memory will your grandmother likely NOT have any deficits?a. Picture memoryb. Memory for factsc. Memory for skillsd. None of the above

Answers

Final answer:

The grandmother with a stroke is likely to maintain her non declarative memory, which includes memory for skills, but may face deficits in declarative memory such as memory for facts.

Explanation:

In the context of memory, non declarative memory refers to the retention of skills and habits, such as how to ride a bicycle or play the piano. It contrasts with declarative memory, which is concerned with facts and events that a person can consciously recollect. Since the doctor mentioned that the grandmother's non declarative memory would be fine despite her stroke, she is most likely to maintain abilities such as memory for skills (option c). On the other hand, the memory for facts, which is part of declarative memory, may be impaired due to the stroke and the ongoing symptoms shared by Rosa's family, indicating issues with cognitive tasks including the management of her finances.

The correct option is c. Memory for skills.

Nondeclarative memory, also known as implicit or procedural memory, refers to the unconscious memory of skills and how to perform them. It is not affected by the type of stroke your grandmother experienced, which typically impacts declarative memory instead. Declarative memory includes memory for facts (semantic memory) and events (episodic memory), both of which are consciously recalled.

Let's consider the options:

a. Picture memory: This is a form of declarative memory, specifically episodic memory, which could be affected by a stroke.

b. Memory for facts: This is also a form of declarative memory, specifically semantic memory, which could be affected by a stroke.

c. Memory for skills: This is a form of nondeclarative memory and is typically spared in cases of stroke, as it is not stored in the same areas of the brain that are often damaged by strokes.

d. None of the above: This option suggests that your grandmother might have deficits in all forms of memory, which is not accurate given the information provided.

Therefore, the most accurate answer is that your grandmother will likely not have any deficits in her memory for skills, which is part of her nondeclarative memory.

Which group of prokaryotes aids digestion in cattle, deer, and other animals that obtain nutrition from cellulose?

Answers

Answer:

Methanogens are group of prokaryotes that aids digestion in cattle, deer, and other animals that obtain nutrition from cellulose.

Explanation:

Methanogens are microorganisms capable of methane production. They belong to the domain Archaea. Methanogenic archaea which reside primarily in the rumen produces methane through the reduction of methanol with hydrogen. Methane produced by the methanogens aids in keeping the hydrogen concentrations low in the rumen, this allows the growth of other species which in turns enable more efficient fermentation.

The majority of the anaerobic microbes which occupy the rumen initiate the fermentation process thereby assisting the cellulose breakdown. Methanogens uses the end products of fermentation as substrates to reduce carbon dioxide, formic acid, or methylamines to methane.

Some terms explained:

Prokaryotes:  are unicellular organisms and they do not have nucleus that houses their genetic material. Examples are organisms like bacteria, methanogens.

Ruminant: They include cattle, deer, goat. They have a unique digestive system which comprises of four-compartment stomach (rumen, reticulum, omasum, and abomasum). With the help of microbes in the specialized somach, they are able to ferment ingested forages to aquire nutrients.

Indications for use of anticholinergic drugs in the treatment for Parkinsonism include to?

Answers

Answer:

decrease salivation, spasticity, and tremors.

Explanation:

Parkinson's disease is a nervous system disorder in which body movements starts slowing down. In early stages, involuntary movements like the shaking of a hand occur which is called tremors and it gets worse over time which includes symptoms like salivation, loss of automatic movements, spasticity, etc.

Anticholinergic drugs block the action neurotransmitter like acetylcholine which helps in transferring signals among different cells. It is used in the treatment of parkinsonism because it decreases and block involuntary muscle movement thereby decrease salivation, spasticity, and tremors.

Hunger is best described as__________.
A) a physiological desire to consume food.
B) a psychological desire to consume food.
C) eating that is often driven by environmental cues.
D) eating that is often driven by emotional cues.

Answers

Answer:

A) a physiological desire to consume food is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Hunger is a feeling that the person needs food to eat.Hunger makes the body weak and vulnerable to infections because the body does not get adequate food to fight against the infections and due to hunger people suffer from malnutrition and if children remain hungry they often have abnormal in their growth.hunger is caused because of poverty, job instability, food shortages, poor infrastructure, nutritional quality.Symptoms of hunger are:Feeling of growling and emptiness in the stomach.DizzinessGurgling in stomachnot able to concentrationheadacheirritabilitynausea

Answer:

Hunger is a physiological desire to consume food.

Explanation:

Hunger is a physiological process controlled by the hypothalamus.

This helps in the secretion of different hormones that enhance the desire of hunger.

When someone eats carbohydrates rich food, insulin is secreted which uses the sugar. When there is no sugary food the insulin secretion is less.

When the person eats lipid food, another hormone will secrete called leptin. It helps in the release of energy to use in physiological activities.

Ghrelin is another hormone responsible for stomach cramps. When someone is hungry, the secretion of ghrelin is more to increase hunger. This is the very reason if a person awake at night he/she feels frequently hungry.

1. In Texas, the most common causes of collisions include speeding, driving under the influence of alcohol, and _____________.

Answers

Answe Running red light and stop signs.

Speeding and failure to yield.

Explanation:

Final answer:

The most common causes of collisions in Texas are speeding, driving under the influence of alcohol, and distracted driving. Distracted driving is especially prevalent among young adult and teen drivers, who are more prone to distraction due to their developmental stage.

Explanation:

In Texas, the most common causes of collisions include speeding, driving under the influence of alcohol, and distracted driving. Distracted driving encompasses various activities that take the driver's attention away from the road, such as eating, reaching for the phone, texting, or any other activity that distracts them from focusing on driving. This is a significant issue among young adult and teen drivers, who have the highest proportion of distraction-related fatal crashes. Additionally, it's important to consider that driving with incomplete brain development can contribute to younger drivers' inability to remain focused and make good decisions, as suggested by the subject's brain development stage.

Certain factors particularly affect older drivers, such as failing eyesight and slower reflexes, combined with rapidly changing traffic conditions, which can increase the risk of accidents.

How did you know that vinegar diffused into the cubes (1 point)? (Remember, as vinegar diffuses into the agar, the agar becomes more acidic. This diffusion causes the phenolphthalein indicator to change from pink to colorless.) Did the diffusion distance differ between the cubes (1 point)?

Answers

Answer:

1)Diffusion

2)yes, because of size difference

Explanation:

1) Biological cells live and grow by the inside and outside movement of molecules and diffusion is a process which takes place when molecules move from higher concentration area to lower concentration area. When cubes of agar alongwith indicator (phenophthalein) is added into vinegar, the hydrogen ions move from vinegar into the agar cubes and change in color appears. This change of color indicates the diffusion of vinegar into agar cubes

2) The diffusion distance differs between the cubes because of different sizes of the cubes. The difference in size results in difference of surface area which can be calculated by the volume of the cube. Larger the cube is, the more time vinegar will take to diffuse into the agar cube.

Vinegar diffusion into agar cubes is indicated by the phenolphthalein indicator turning from pink to colorless. The diffusion distance likely differs between cubes of different sizes due to variations in their surface area-to-volume ratios, affecting the rate of diffusion.

The visual indication of vinegar diffusing into the agar cubes can be observed through the colour change of the phenolphthalein indicator, which goes from pink to colorless as vinegar diffuses into the cube, indicating an increase in acidity. This demonstrates the movement of the vinegar into the agar by diffusion. By measuring the cube's cross-section that remains pink, we can assess the distance the vinegar diffused.

Regarding the difference in diffusion distance between the cubes, typically smaller cubes will exhibit a larger proportion of their volume changing color compared to larger cubes. This difference is due to the larger surface area-to-volume ratio in smaller cubes, which facilitates a faster rate of diffusion relative to the larger cubes with a smaller surface area-to-volume ratio.

Which of the following is related to the likelihood that a mother develops postpartum depression?

a. Symptoms of depression during or after a previous pregnancy
b. Previous experience with depression or bipolar disorder at another time in her life
c. A family member who has been diagnosed with depression or other mental illness
d. A stressful life event during pregnancy or shortly after giving birth, such as job loss, death of a loved one, domestic violence, or personal illness
e. All of the above

Answers

Answer:

Option D

Explanation:

Postpartum depression is majorly experienced in woman who has recently entered into motherhood. This form of depression arises because of the complications involved in a child birth. It is strongly driven by sudden changes that come up in the life of a woman after becoming mother such as – loss of job, responsibility of child, tight life schedule etc. some common symptoms of this problem include – mood swing, anxiety, sleeplessness, crying etc.  

Hence, option D is correct

Consider a cross between individuals that are: AaBbCcDd and AAbbccDD in which all genes segregate independently. What frequency of progeny will have the same genotype as the AAbbccDD parent?

Answers

Answer:

1/16

Explanation:

The genotype of parents: AaBbCcDd and AAbbccDD

To calculate the frequency of a child with a specific genotype, we can calculate the individual frequencies for each gene and apply the product rule to calculate the overall frequency.

Aa x AA = 1/2 Aa: 1/2 AA

Bb x bb = 1/2 Bb: 1/2 bb

Cc x cc = 1/2 Cc: 1/2 cc

Dd x DD= 1/2 DD: 1/2 Dd

Therefore, the frequency of a progeny with genotype AAbbccDD = 1/2 AA x 1/2 bb x 1/2 cc x 1/2 DD = 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 = 1/16 or 0.0625 .

Which term describes the length of time a microbial species needs in order to divide?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - generation Time.

Explanation:

Generation time is the average time between 2 generations that are come one after another in the ancestry of a species or population. In microbiology, the generation time is also similar but define as the time a microbe such as bacteria takes for the population or species to divide to double or doubling time.

The generation time of the microbes like bacteria varies from 12 minutes up to 24 hours whereas generation time of coliform's generation time is 12 to 24 hours.

Thus, the correct answer is - generation time.

Answer: Generation time or doubling time

Explanation:

The generation time or the doubling time is the time by which the bacterial population doubles.

Binary fusion can be defined as the method by which the population of the bacteria gets double in number or value.

It is very helpful in case of extraction of resources and consumption of  resources and many more.

This length of time is known as doubling time or generation time.

One of the key differences in the DSM-IV diagnosis and DSM-5 diagnosis is that ________.

A. More children will be diagnosed
B. The level of the client's severity is to be indicated
C. More clients will access services
D. Asperger's will remain as a prevalent disorder

Answers

Answer: B

Explanation: The level of the client's severity is to be indicated

Gene knockouts often result in embryonic lethality. What strategy do investigators often use to make it possible to study a gene’s role later in development?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:Genes are picked by investigators through hand picked

: Based on scientific interest.

or based on chromosomal position.

: I.e as Functional candidates or positional candidates.

After then, The results will be summarized in several review.

A bacterial cell that is resistant to a particular antibiotic may spend a large amount of energy producing the modified proteins that are needed for resistance. In such a case, what would be the effect on this cell's fitness if no antibiotic was present?

Answers

Answer:

Its fitness would be lower than other strains that lack resistance because it is spending energy that the resistant strains can use for other purposes, such as reproduction.

Plants and algae most recently shared a common ancestor 480 million years ago, and plants colonized land shortly after that. Light, water, minerals, and dissolved gases surround the whole body of a submerged green alga, and the buoyancy of water provides physical support. What evolved in terrestrial plants to provide support and also transport water and minerals?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be- the vascular system

Explanation:

The plants and algae evolved from a common ancestor and studies have also found that the algae-like Chara also evolved into plants.

The plants became adapted to grow in the terrestrial habitat by modifying themselves. The modification was that they developed the vascular system which helps them in conduction of the nutrients and water from the soil to the top of the plants and also the food to every part of the plant.

The plants also added the deposition of the cutin layer over their structure which allows the plants to stand straight and few amounts of loss of water from the plants.

Thus, the vascular system is the correct answer.

The instantaneous and automatic fear response we experience when unexpectedly stumbling upon a snake illustrates the importance of the

Answers

amygdala is the answe

Some characteristics of DNA are shared between all living organisms, whereas other characteristics of DNA differ between organisms. Classify DNA characteristics as either being a universal attribute of DNA or an attribute of DNA that is unique to particular individuals or species. 1. nucleotides A,C,G,T; 2. Size of genome3. triplet codes4. code for amino acids; 5. DNA sequence;

Answers

Answer:

Universal DNA attribute: nucleotide's A,C,G,T; triplet; code for amino acids.

DNA attribute unique to particular individual: DNA sequence; size of genome.

Explanation:

What mass of glucose can be produced from a photosynthesis reaction that occurs using 10 mol CO2?

Answers

Answer: 21

Explanations: because 9+10 =21

The stop codon is recognized by

A. GTP
B. a special aminoacyl tRNA
C. eRF1 and eRF2
D. a molecular chaperone

Answers

Answer:

 C. eRF1 and eRF2

Explanation:

A release factor is a protein that can recognize a terminal codon in order to end the translation. In eukaryotes the release factors is eRF1 and in bacteria there are two release factors, eRF1 and eRF2.

I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!

Although Mr. Yanagita has recently learned to play poker quite well, he cannot consciously remember ever having played poker. It is likely that he has suffered damage to his
a. brainstem.
b. cerebellum.
c. hypothalamus.
d. hippocampus.
e. motor cortex.

Answers

Answer:

d. hippocampus.

Explanation:

The hippocampus is where episodic memories are formed and stored to use later. This kind of memories are autobiographical, this means that they are formed from our experiences, for example Mr. Yanagita learning to play poker. We conclude the hippocampus is damaged because Mr. YAnagita can't recall the experience of having played poker before.

I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck.

Final answer:

Mr. Yanagita likely has damage to his hippocampus, resulting in his inability to form conscious memories of playing poker.

Explanation:

Mr. Yanagita's inability to consciously remember playing poker despite being good at it suggests damage to his hippocampus, which is responsible for forming new explicit memories. This is supported by the case of H.M., who had his hippocampi removed and experienced significant memory loss. However, his implicit memory, which is controlled by the cerebellum, remained intact. The cerebellum also plays a role in coordinating movement, but it is not directly involved in memory formation.

In 1988, a biologist named Richard Lenski introduced 12 genetically identical populations of E. coli to test tubes and subjected them to the same conditions: a period of growth followed by starvation. After several years, all 12 strains had adapted to the conditions in similar ways; however, their genetic sequences were very different. Which of the following conclusions from this experiment is CORRECT

Answers

Answer:

Let's add the options in order to make it a correct question

a. Similar phenotypes may result from a variety of underlying genotypes

b. Similar selective pressures on genetically identical organisms can

have different effects at the level of the genome.

c. Evolution by natural selection can be directly observed in organisms with short generation times.

d. The 12 E. coli populations underwent convergent evolution resulting from similar environmental

conditions

e. All of the above are

correct conclusions drawn

from Richard Lenski's

experiments.

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS E.

e. All of the above are correct

conclusions drawn fram Richard

Lenski experiments

Which of the following best describes an advantage that eukaryote organisms have over prokaryote organisms?A) Prokaryotes lack a cell membrane and therefore are unable to control what enters or exits the cell.B) Eukaryotes have a nuclear envelope separating their DNA from the rest of the cell, which increases the likelihood of advantageous mutations.C) Eukaryotes have mitochondria and chloroplasts that contain their own genome, which allows the cells to reproduce more rapidly.D) Eukaryotes have organelles that allow for compartmentalization of cellular processes, which increases the efficiency of those processes.

Answers

Answer:

Answer is D.

Explanation:

Eukaryotic organisms are organisms that possess nucleus and membrane -bound organelles. They derived their name from the word eukaryote, which means true nucleus. They can be single-celled or multi-celled. Examples are fungi, some unicellular organisms, plants and animals.

Prokaryotic organisms are all other organisms that lack membrane -bound organelles and nucleus. Examples are viruses, bacteria and certain algae.

Final answer:

Eukaryotes have organelles that compartmentalize cellular processes, which increases their efficiency. Further complexity comes from the eukaryotic cells' true nucleus housing DNA, absent in prokaryotic cells. This compartmentalization and overall organization contribute to eukaryotes' capability to engage in more complex functions.

Explanation:

The best answer choice to the student's question is D) Eukaryotes have organelles that allow for compartmentalization of cellular processes, which increases the efficiency of those processes.

Eukaryotic cells, found in multicellular organisms such as plants and animals, have a variety of membrane-bound organelles such as the nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, mitochondria and others. These organelles perform specialized functions that allow for compartmentalization of cellular processes, increasing the efficiency of these functions.

Likewise, the nucleus, which houses the cell's DNA, is separated by a nuclear membrane, a feature absent in prokaryotic cells. Additionally, eukaryotic cells are typically larger, capable of performing more complex functions thanks to their organelles, and have a true nucleus, meaning its DNA is surrounded by a membrane. This organization and segregation of functions within the cell contribute towards the organism's overall efficiency and complexity.

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All life depends on the availability of usable energy. This energy is released when
(1) organisms convert solar energy into the chemical energy found in food molecules(2) respiration occurs in the cells of producers and high-energy molecules enter the atmosphere(3) cells carry out the process of respiration(4) animal cells synthesize starch and carbon dioxide

Answers

Answer:

3 (Cells carry out the respiration process)

Explanation:

Cellular respiration is a metabolic (catabolic) process common to all living things as all living things need energy for their life processes.

Respiration is the biochemical process in which the cells of an organism obtain energy by breaking down organic molecules in presence or absence of oxygen (aerobic or anaerobic) resulting in the release of Carbondioxide (CO2), water and Adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

Food molecules (containing stored energy in their chemical bonds) absorbed after digestion are broken down and the energy within their molecules are freed. This freed energy in form of ATP, is used to power the organism's movement and physiological functions.

Note that, ATP is an energy carrying molecule and a usable form of energy by cells. This is so because ATP releases energy quickly. Energy is released from ATP when the end phosphate (Pi) is removed to become ADP (adenosine diphosphate), which is a low energy molecule.

Aerobic cellular respiration consists of Glycolysis, Kreb's cycle and Oxidative phosphorylation. A total of 38 ATP molecules is produced in the cytosol of prokaryotes while a total of 36 ATP molecules is produced in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells.

Other Questions
What symptoms do deer with CWD have? ___________ is a common pricing strategy used in the entertainment industry where the price of the entertainment product may vary based on region, sales location, date, or other factors. The goal of this pricing strategy is to adjust the price in order to achieve balance between sales and revenue per unit sold based on market characteristics. PLEASE HELP SOLVE1.-8p - 7 - 5 - 5p - 4p p 2.r - 1 - 8 + 2r r 3.a + 6 < 6 + 2a a > 4.16 - 4x + 1 + 5 < 1 + x + 2x x > Suppose a firm has two types of customers but cannot tell which type of buyer a customer is before a purchase is made. One group of customers has an inverse demand of P = 100 10Q, while another group of customers has an inverse demand curve of P = 110 22.5Q. If the firm wanted to use a quantity discount pricing scheme, what prices should it set? Assume that the marginal cost of production is constant at $20.A) The firm could charge $65 per unit for any quantity purchased or $60 per unit if buying 4 or more units.B) The firm could charge $50 per unit for any quantity purchased or $40 per unit if buying 8 or more units.C) The firm could charge $25 per unit for any quantity purchased or $20 per unit if buying 2 or more units.D) The firm could charge $85 per unit for any quantity purchased or $75 per unit if buying 6 or more units.I know the answer is A but do not understand how to get there. thanks! Chloe talked to several stockbrokers and made the following conclusions. Which, if any, of Chloe's conclusions are correct? A. It is relatively easy to reduce firm-specific risk by increasing the number of companies one holds stock in. B. Some people have made a lot of money in the stock market by using insider information, but these cases are not contrary to the efficient markets hypothesis. C. Stock prices, even if not exactly a random walk, are very close to it. D. All of Chloe's conclusions are correct. What is the answer ? A company purchased a high-quality color laser printer to print color brochures and sales proposals. The printer is connected to a marketing PC via USB and is configured as a shared local printer for use by the sales and marketing teams. The manager is concerned about the cost of consumables for the printer and does not want users to unintentionally print to the printer.What can be done to ensure that only authorized users can send print jobs to the printer?a. Enable user authentication on the printer share.b. Disable print spooling on the marketing PC.c. Set security permissions for the marketing PC's signed-in user.d. Disable the local share on the marketing PC. Cheetah Copy purchased a new copy machine. The new machine cost $140,000 including installation. The company estimates the equipment will have a residual value of $35,000. Cheetah Copy also estimates it will use the machine for four years or about 8,000 total hours. Actual use per year was as follows: Year Hours Used 1 3,000 2 2,000 3 2,000 4 2,000 Required: 1. Prepare a depreciation schedule for four years using the straight-line method. which term best descirbes the infants that are born therre weeks or more before the pregnancy has reached its full term? A radio station asks its listeners to call in their opinion regarding the closing of fire stations in the city. Identify the sampling method used, and explain why this sample could be biased. Make x the subject:1. ax + 2d = 2cx + 5b If you started with 0.183 mol of N2 and 0.549 mol of H2, and they completely reacted in the reaction vessel, determine the total moles of gas particles (n) there are during the initial and final conditions. Additionally, determine the ratio of the number of gas particles in the products to that of the reactants, then complete the statements below. What was life like for American settlers moving west? The amount of radiation we personally encounter that originates in the Earth's and the atmosphere's natural background is? na mwamba ngoma huvuta wapi? Can someone plzzz help me with number 8 plzz show work plzzzz Wesley is serving a 10-month sentence for driving while impaired. This was Wesley's second conviction. He has never served time before and is overwhelmed with his experience so far. He is serving his time with all walks of life and most inmates say they are not guilty. Wesley cannot believe he is serving time and the manager is someone he supported and actually voted for. Wesley knows that the next 10 months cannot go fast enough.Wesley is upset that he is managed by someone he voted for. He is referring to the____________.a. warden.b. sheriff.c. chief.d. secretary. Please help me answer and explain number 55 _____ occurs when the shoulder blades move toward the midline. A. Scapular depression B. Scapular protraction C. Scapular elevation D. Scapular retraction What is the denouement of the story the adventure of the cardboard box