Answer:
Both the PKA and IP3 levels increases. Hence, the correct answer is a and b.
Explanation:
Forskolin refers to a drug that increases the levels of cAMP or cyclic AMP by stimulating the enzyme adenylyl cyclase. The cAMP is an essential secondary messenger that ensures proper biological response of cells to hormones and other signals and also takes part in communication between the cells.
When Forskolin increases the levels of cAMP, it will stimulate the enzyme PKA or protein kinase A and at the same time also enhances the intracellular concentration of Ca2+ and IP3 (inositol 1,2,5 triphosphate).
Forskolin will increase PKA levels and have no effect on IP3 levels.
Explanation:Forskolin, a drug used to activate adenylyl cyclase constitutively, would increase PKA levels and have no effect on IP3 levels.
Forskolin activates adenylyl cyclase, which increases cAMP and subsequently increases PKA activity. It does not affect IP3 levels since IP3 production is not linked to cAMP or AC activity.
Adenylyl cyclase is responsible for converting ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP). By activating adenylyl cyclase with forskolin, there would be an increase in cAMP levels. Increased cAMP levels would then activate protein kinase A (PKA), leading to increased PKA levels.
On the other hand, forskolin does not directly interact with IP3 or affect IP3 levels. Therefore, there would be no effect on IP3 levels.
The motion of lipid molecules in a synthetic bilayer can be studied by various techniques. Which of the following has been observed in these systems?
A. Phospholipids diffuse rapidly within and between the two leaflets of a bilayer.
B. An average lipid molecule can diffuse the length of about 2 micrometers in a fraction of a millisecond.
C .Flip-flops are very rare for phospholipids.
D. Within a bilayer, lipid molecules rarely rotate about their long axis, but diffuse laterally at very high rates.
E. All of the above
Answer:
Option C . Flip-flops are very rare for phospholipids.
Explanation:
Flip-flop means that movement of phospholipds upside down. This phenomenon occur in cell membrane but very rarely. I have attached a picture for you to under stand how flip-flopping occurred.
Suppose a diploid mosquito is completely heterozygous at all 6 of its chromosomes (2n = 6). How many different combinations of gametes can be produced by this mosquito, assuming no homologous recombination between chromosomes?
Answer:
8 different combinations of gametes can be produced by this mosquito, assuming no homologous recombination between chromosomes
Explanation:
The mosquito has 6 chromosomes. This means that means it has 3 pairs of homologous chromosomes. Basically, we can assume the number of different gametes by 2 to the power of 3 as their are 3 homologous pairs. This means 2×2×2 which will be equal to the amount of eight. Hence, eight different combination of gametes will be produced.
This mosquito can produce 64 different combinations of gametes.
Step 1
If a diploid mosquito is completely heterozygous at all 6 of its chromosomes (2n = 6), it means that each chromosome pair consists of two different alleles.
There are two potential alleles for every pair of chromosomes, and during gamete development, each allele can segregate independently. Thus, the number of alternative allele combinations for each pair of chromosomes determines the number of various combinations of gametes that this mosquito can produce.
Step 2
For each chromosome pair:
- There are 2 different alleles.
- Each allele can segregate independently during gamete formation.
So, for one chromosome pair, there are 2 possible combinations of gametes.
Step 3
Since there are six chromosomal pairs altogether, multiplying the number of combinations for each pair will yield the total number of possible gamete combinations:
[tex]\[2^6 = 64\][/tex]
Therefore, this mosquito can produce 64 different combinations of gametes.
"Every cell has its own clock, for example, skin cells. What is the clock of the skin cells?"
Answer: Clock in the skin cells is called circadian clock.
Explanation:
Circadian clock is a system that requlates how the skin function and human physiology. The stem cells of basal epidermal harbors circadian clock.Circadian clock is found in some skin cells like melanocytes, keratinocytes and fibroblasts. Circadian clock found in skin cells may function by regulating cell proliferation.
If Jack and Jill have a child with an AAa genotype, during which meiotic division, and in which parent, could nondisjunction have occurred?
Further information from another source:
Jill is heterozygous for gene A and is going to have a child with Jack, who is homozygous recessive for gene A.
Answer:
Maternal meiosis II
Explanation:
Jill has the genotype Aa, and Jack has the genotype aa. Jack can only contribute the a, whereas Jill can contribute A or a. For the child to have 2 copies of the A allele and two copies of the a allele, that means the nondisjunction must have happened in the mother.
As for the stage of meiosis, non-disjunction in meiosis I means that homologous chromosomes fail to separate properly. This would mean that the child would inherit Aa from its mother and a from its father. This is not the case.
Non-disjunction in meiosis II means identical sister chromatids fail to separate properly, which means the child would inherit either aa from its mother, or AA from its mother, and a from its father. This could give the genotype AAa. Therefore, nondisjunction must have occurred in maternal meiosis II
Nondisjunction, leading to an AAa genotype in a child, suggests an extra chromosome from an event in either meiosis I or II in one of the parents. It's not possible to determine exactly which parent or stage without additional information, although the specifics of the genotype hint at meiosis II.
If Jack and Jill have a child with an AAa genotype, nondisjunction must have occurred. Given that humans normally have two alleles for each gene (one from each parent), the presence of three alleles suggests an extra chromosome resulting from nondisjunction. Nondisjunction can occur during either meiosis I or II, and since we have an imbalance in the number of A alleles, it indicates a nondisjunction event in one of the parents.
If we have gametes Ab and aB, the genotype produced should be in a 1:2:1 ratio of AAbb:AaBb:aaBB, provided that no errors such as nondisjunction occurred. However, AAa indicates an extra A allele, which is not expected in typical Mendelian inheritance and is a clear sign of nondisjunction.
Without further information on the parental genotypes, or when nondisjunction occurred, we cannot determine the exact parent or stage of meiosis in which this occurred. However, examining the parental phenotypes and potential genotypes could provide additional clues, as a nondisjunction during meiosis I would result in gametes with either two copies or no copies of the chromosome containing the A allele, whereas nondisjunction in meiosis II would result in one normal gamete, one gamete with an extra A allele, and two gametes with a single A allele. Given the child's genotype of AAa, it is conceivable that nondisjunction occurred in one of the parents during meiosis II.
Note that this answer assumes a homologous pair of chromosomes containing the A allele and does not consider the possibility of a de novo mutation or other complex genetic events.
The food from stomach empties into the ___. a. colon b. esophagus c. duodenum of the small intestine d. ileum of the small intestine
Answer:c. duodenum of the small intestine
Explanation:
The digestive system is a series of hollow organs joined in a long, twisting tube from the mouth to the anus Inside this tube is a lining called the mucosa. In the mouth, stomach, and small intestine, the mucosa contains tiny glands that produce juices to help digest food.
Two solid organs, the liver and the pancreas, produce digestive juices that reach the intestine through small tubes. In addition, parts of other organ systems (for instance, nerves and blood) play a major role in the digestive system.
The food from the stomach empties into the duodenum of the small intestine. Therefore, the correct answer is option c.
The food from the stomach empties into the duodenum of the small intestine.
Digestion of food begins in the mouth.The chewed and softened food passes through the esophagus after being swallowed.The smooth muscles of the esophagus undergo peristalsis that pushes the food toward the stomach.The food enters the stomach where it is further broken down by stomach acid and enzymes.After the initial breakdown in the stomach, the food empties into the duodenum of the small intestine.Therefore, the correct answer is option c.
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Research using animals must demonstrate a(n) ____.a. clear benefit to other animals. physical or financial benefit to humansc. absence of discomfort or invasive procedures. clear scientific purpose
Answer: Option D.
Research using an animal must demonstrate a CLEAR SCIENTIFIC PURPOSE.
Explanation:
A research is a systematic approach or methodology used to investigate a study or sources to get some fact. Animal research is mainly done for medical research and vertebrates like cats are mostly use.
Research using an animal most demonstrate the clear purpose i.e you state the research problem, state your hypothesi, the methods used and conclusion.
The subject of the question is Biology and it pertains to the ethical considerations and requirements involved in research using animals.
The subject of this question is Biology and it pertains to the ethical considerations and requirements involved in research using animals. When conducting experiments on animals, researchers must demonstrate a clear scientific purpose to justify the use of animals. This means that the research must have a valid scientific objective and contribute to the advancement of knowledge in the field. The other options listed in the question are not accurate representations of the requirements for animal research.
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Which of the following statements correctly describes intermediate filaments? a. They are the only cytoskeletal filaments that are not composed of protein. b. Intermediate filaments are the principal component of the cell cortex. c. These filaments are always found outside of the cell. d. These filaments help the cell to withstand mechanical stress. e. None of the above answers are correct
Answer: d. These filaments help the cell to withstand mechanical stress.
Explanation:
Intermediate filaments are the rope like fibers. These filaments form an extensive network ranging from the nucleus to the plasma membrane thus these filaments entirely cover the cytoplasma of the cell. These are developed from the cytoskeletal proteins. They have a diameter that is intermediate between thick and thin myofibrils. The diameter of the myofibril is in between 10 to 12 nm. They stabilize the nucleus. The main function of the intermediate filaments is to provide mechanical strength to the cells that will help them to withstand stress during stretching, elongation and changing shape.
The correct statement about intermediate filaments is option d. These filaments help the cell to withstand mechanical stress. They are part of the cytoskeleton that gives the cell its shape and provides strength.
Explanation:Intermediate filaments are an essential part of the cell's cytoskeleton, which provides the cell with shape, strength, and the ability to withstand mechanical stress. Therefore, the statement d. These filaments help the cell to withstand mechanical stress is correct. Intermediate filaments are different from the other cytoskeletal components, microfilaments and microtubules, in being composed of several different proteins, which explains their varying diameters (hence, 'intermediate'). They are found within the cell, not outside of it, and unlike the other components of the cytoskeleton, they are not involved in cell movement.
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Who is generally given institutional responsibility for deciding if an individual researcher is properly trained to perform animal procedures, as required by law?
Answer:Institutional Animal Care and Use Committees ( IACUC).
Explanation: it was formally introduced in 1986 with an amendment to the Animal Welfare Act and corresponding changes in U. S. public health service policy. It is the committee that investigates researcher to know if they are properly trained to perform animal procedures, as required by law.
Paramecium was found to occupy 20% of the FOV of a microscope at 40X magnification power. How many paramecium can be accommodated within this FOV?
5 Paramecium could be accommodated in this FOV.
Explanation:
FOV refers to the field of view of the microscope.
It is the maximum length or area of specimen you can observe in a single view.
If a single paramecium occupies 20 % of the Entire FOV.
Then the number of paramecium that will be accomodate 100% of FOV will be given by ,
[tex]\frac{100}{20} = 5[/tex] Paramecium.
which is equal to 5.
Five Paramecia can be accommodated within the field of view of a microscope at 40X magnification power, assuming 100% utilization of the FOV.
Explanation:The question revolves around the magnification of a single Paramecium when viewed under a microscope at 40X magnification power. Since the Paramecium occupies 20% of the field of view (FOV) at this magnification, we can infer that a total of five Paramecia would fit into the FOV because 100% divided by 20% equals 5. It is important to note that this is an ideal scenario assuming the Paramecia are lined up end to end without any space in between.
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When you observe a patient like Tina throughout an exam, there are many ways to determine whether a patient is experiencing respiratory distress. Identify one indicator of respiratory distress that can be assessed through observation alone.
Answer: difficulty in breathing.
Explanation: Rate of respiration becomes irregular per minute which is a sign of respiratory distress. They may be breathing rapidly. They will look uncomfortable, they may lie-down due to difficulty in breathing.
In this condition, try to check the air ways or pulse of the patient.
Answer:
Explanation:
Obvious and visible signs of respiratory stress include: fast respiratory rate, wheezing, cyanosis (blue discoloration of the skin), sweating, audible breathing, moving backwards of the chest and speech incoherence.
Which structure becomes the seed after fertilization? ovary anther ovule pollen
Answer:
Ovule becomes seed after fertilization and ovary becomes the fruit
Bacterial plasma (cell) membranes contain which two molecules in the greatest abundance? Choose one or more:
(A) lipopolysaccharides
(B) ribosomes.
(C) polysaccharides
(D) phospholipids
(E) proteins
(F) nucleic acids
Answer: Option D and E.
Bacterial cell membranes contain phospholipid and proteins.
Explanation:
Bacterial unicellular microorganisms. Bacteria cell membrane cover the whole body and it is a thin layer of about 8 nanometers thickness. The cell plasma membrane contain phospholipid and protein which serve as permeability barrier for molecules and aid in the transport of material in and out of the cell. The protein is the building block.
Suppose an organism (2n) has a haploid number of n=6. How many chromatids would be present at prophase of mitosis?
Answer:
24
Explanation:
An organism with n=6 chromosomes would have the diploid chromosome number 2n= 12 in its somatic cells. The process of DNA replication during the S phase of interphase doubles the DNA content. This newly formed DNA is accommodated in the sister chromatids of chromosomes. Therefore, after the S phase, each chromosome has two sister chromatids.
The prophase cells have clearly visible chromosomes due to the compaction of chromatin. Each of the prophase chromosomes has two sister chromatids. Therefore, the total number of chromatids in prophase cell of the given organism would be 12 x 2 = 24.
Darla smoked heavily during the entire 9 months of her pregnancy. Her newborn baby will most likely be a. underweight.b. autisticc. hyperactived. hearing impaired
Answer:
The correct answer is - a. underweight.
Explanation:
Smoking is advised to quit before pregnancy so new born could be risk free of health issue caused by smoking. The major pregnancy risks of the smoking heavily during pregnancy for new born babies are preterm birth, cleft birth defects.
The heavily entire 9 month smoking leads to underweight baby due to various reason including preterm birth. SIDS is also one of the risks of the smoking even after the pregnancy.
Thus, the correct answer is - a. underweight.
Two or more related lineages acquire a similar characteristic which is not found in a common ancestor. What are the structures called?A. parallelB. homologousC. divergentD. analogousE. cladistic
Answer:
The correct option is D. analogous
Explanation:
We speak of an analogy when one structure is similar to another or has the same function, but whose embryonic development and its origin or ancestor is not common, they are different, in other words, they are analogous structures if they fulfill functions or acquire similar characteristics starting from the same medium, without requiring them to have the same evolutionary origin (they may or may not be similar structurally and embryologically).
Analogous structures are features in different organisms that are similar due to convergent evolution in similar environmental conditions, rather than from a common ancestor.
Explanation:When two or more related lineages acquire a similar characteristic that is not found in a common ancestor, the structures are called analogous structures. These features arise due to convergent evolution, where organisms evolve similar traits independently because of similar environmental pressures, not because they share a close evolutionary relationship. An example of analogous structures are the wings of bats and insects, which look similar because they both facilitate flight but developed independently in these lineages without a common ancestor with wings.
Historically, an unusual aspect of the recent rise in CO2 levels is that Select one: a. there is no known mechanism for its occurrence. b. CO2 reacts so quickly with other compounds that it should not be occurring. c. it has occurred relatively slowly. d. it has occurred relatively rapidly.
Answer:
B. CO2 reacts so quickly with other compounds that it should not be occurring.
Explanation:
CO2 concentrations globally have increased significantly due to increased anthropogenic activities of burning, increased emissions from industrial hubs around the globe and other contributing human activities. Burning of fossil fuels, coal and liquified natural gas releases greenhouse gases, GHGs to the atmosphere and water bodies. It has been estimated recently that CO2 rise at 2.4 parts per million.
Historically, an unusual aspect of the recent rise in [tex]CO_2[/tex] levels is due to the fact that: B. [tex]CO_2[/tex] reacts so quickly with other compounds that it should not be occurring.
Carbon is a non-metallic and tetravalent chemical element represented with the chemical symbol C and it has an atomic number (number of protons) of six (6).
In Chemistry, the two (2) simplest and most common oxide of carbon (oxocarbon) include the following:
Carbon monoxide (CO)Carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex])Carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex]) is a greenhouse gas and it occurs naturally as a trace gas within the atmosphere of planet Earth. Also, it should be noted that carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex]) is a highly reactive gas which chemically reacts with other chemical compounds, but it is still occurring in abundance.
In recent times, there has been a significant rise in the level of carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex]) as a result of an increase in emission by industries, excessive burning of organic compounds, which in turn causes global warming and the depletion of Earth's ozone layer.
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Which of the following statements concerning the process of spontaneous folding of proteins is false?
1) It may be an essentially random process.
2) It may involve initial formation of local secondary structure.
3) It may involve initial formation of a highly compact state.
4) It may involve a gradually decreasing range of conformational species.
5) It may be defective in some human diseases.
Answer:
The correct answer is the number 1) It may be an essentially random process
Explanation:
Protein folding is a chemical process in which the structure of a protein assumes its functional configuration.
All protein molecules are heterogeneous, unbranched chains of amino acids. By folding and rolling to take a specific three-dimensional shape, proteins are able to perform their biological function.
The opposite process is called denaturation, in which an original protein is forced to lose its functional configuration, becoming an amorphous and non-functional chain of amino acids. Denatured proteins can lose their solubility and precipitate into insoluble solids. In some cases, the denaturation is reversible and the proteins may reenact. However, denaturation is, in most cases, an irreversible process.
In certain solutions and under certain conditions, proteins may not fold. Temperatures above or below the range in which cells usually survive, cause the protein to unfold or denature (this is why boiling causes the egg white to become opaque). High concentrations of solute and pH extremes can lead to the same result. A completely denatured protein has no tertiary and secondary structures, and exists under the designation of a random spiral. Cells sometimes protect their proteins from denaturation by heat thanks to enzymes known as companions or heat shock proteins, these help other proteins, both to fold and to stay folded. Some proteins never fold inside cells except with the help of accompanying molecules, which isolate individual proteins so that their folding is not interrupted by interactions with other proteins. The DNA configuration is maintained by another set of enzymes.
The statement concerning the process of spontaneous folding of proteins that is false is A. It may be an essentially random process.
Protein folding simply means the chemical process where the structure of a protein gets its functional configuration. The process of spontaneous folding of proteins can be may be defective in some human diseases.
The process of spontaneous folding of proteins may involve an initial formation of local secondary structure and an initial formation of a highly compact state.
In conclusion, the false statement is it can be an essentially random process.
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Carbohydrate-based fat substitutes use plant polysaccharides to help retain moisture and provide a fatlike texture
Answer:true
Explanation:
How would the feedback mechanism function to restore homeostasis after high TSH levels? Include receptor details
The feedback mechanism is negative which is responsible for restoring homeostasis after high TSH levels.
The thyroid hormone is regulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone gene which is a negative feedback. The hypothalamus is responsible for the release of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) that regulates the thyroid hormone. Thyroid hormone production is controlled by the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis.
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) signals the anterior pituitary in order to release thyroid stimulating hormone which regulates the release of thyroid hormone so we can conclude that the feedback mechanism is negative which is responsible for restoring homeostasis after high TSH levels.
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To restore homeostasis after high TSH levels, the body uses a negative feedback mechanism where elevated thyroid hormone levels trigger a drop in TSH production. This cycle restores balance in the body. However, disruptions to this process, like autoantibodies binding to TSH receptors, can lead to overproduction of thyroid hormones and imbalance.
Explanation:The feedback mechanism functions to restore homeostasis after high TSH levels through a process known as negative feedback. When TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone) levels are high, the body responds by releasing thyroid hormones (T3 and T4). These hormones are often referred to as metabolic hormones because their levels influence the body's basal metabolic rate. They also play a crucial role in the regulation of the body's energy use and heat production.
In a classic negative feedback loop, the elevated levels of thyroid hormones in the bloodstream then trigger a drop in production of TSH, allowing the body to restore a state of balance or homeostasis. However, in some cases, the negative feedback system can be disrupted. For instance, autoantibodies could bind to the TSH receptors, causing an overproduction of thyroid hormones because the negative feedback system is unable to function as it normally would. This can lead to imbalances in the body, such as those seen in conditions like hyperthyroidism.
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Chose the statement that best describes a molecule that would be soluble in water:
A: The molecule is composed entirely of hydrogen and carbon atoms.
B: The molecule contains a large majority of nonpolar covalent bonds.
C: The molecule is neutral (i.e. has no charge).
D: The molecule contains numerous polar covalent bonds scattered throughout.
E: The molecule is a hydrocarbon.
Answer:
The molecule that is neutral, meaning it has no charge
Explanation:
Normally, water is good at dissolving ions and polar molecules, but not non-polar molecules.
A polar molecule on the other hand is one that's neutral, or has no charge, but has an asymmetrical internal distribution of charge, leading to partially positive and partially negative regions.
Imagine that you read a study of the effects of exercise on the prevalence of heart disease in women ages 35 to 65. Although you believe the experiment was carried out in an appropriate manner, you still do not believe the results. You decide to conduct your own study to see for yourself. To determine if the results of the first study are valid, would you want to do everything the same way as the first study or would you change several of the variables, such as studying men, or looking at different age groups? Explain your choice, and explain the consequences of the other choice.
Answer:
In the given case, in my opinion, one should perform the experiment in a similar manner with no change. An experiment is done many times in order to omit any influences of sampling or handling on the outcomes of the study. For this purpose, the repetitive experiments have to be performed in a similar way as the previous ones were performed. After that, the outcomes of the repetitive experiment and the initial one are compared.
If any conditions or variables are changed in the experiment, the outcomes of the repeated experiment cannot be compared with the initial one. As variations in experimental material, variables, or procedure would have influenced the outcomes.
Answer:
The correct answer is - the study will follow same way as the first study conducted.
Explanation:
If any research or study is meant to be tested the most comparable and accurate one should conduct his or her study on the same way the experiment has been conducted first time. It should not change any variable or conditions as it may lead to fluctuation in the results as well.
So the change in the variable will lead to the change in the results and it will be tough to compare the results.
Thus, the correct answer is - the study will follow same way as the first study conducted.
To be most comparable, you would conduct your new study in the exact same manner as the previous study. If you were to change any of the variables, then the results might change as well; thus, you would not be able to compare your new results to the first study.
In a variational process of evolution, as described by Darwin, the properties of a trait in a population change because:a.Each of the individuals in the population change in that trait.b.Some of the individuals in the population change their trait by a small amount and others by a large amount.c.Whether or not an individual in the population changes its trait varies depending on the environment where that individual lives.d.None of the individuals in the population change, rather which individuals remain in the population changes.
Answer:
Option (c).
Explanation:
Darwin is known as the father of evolution and explains the theory of the natural selection. He explains the relationship between the evolution and the natural selection.
According to Darwin the population with more reproductive power has high chance of fitness and adapt in the environment. This is because the large number of individual in the population shows large variation with the variation in the fitness when subjected to the process of natural selection. The changes or the variation in the trait mainly depends upon the environmental condition of the individual.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
Final answer:
The properties of traits in a population change not because individuals change their traits, but because natural selection (environment) changes which individuals survive and reproduce, altering the population's genetic composition over generations. So, option c is correct.
Explanation:
In a variational process of evolution, as described by Darwin, the properties of a trait in a population change because none of the individuals in the population change, rather which individuals remain in the population changes. This is due to natural selection, where traits that provide a survival and reproductive advantage become more common in the population over time. Evolution occurs due to changes in the genetic composition of a population over generations, resulting from differential reproduction of individuals with certain alleles. It is important to understand that evolution does not occur on the individual level, but across populations where the average value of a characteristic may change due to the presence of more advantageous traits within the breeding individuals.
Why do solvent particles flow into the cell when the initial volume is below 50%?
Answer: Differences in osmotic concentrations
Explanation: With solvent particles flowing into the cell, it means the concentration outside of the cell is higher and with initial volume less than 50%, then that within the cell is lower. This results in an osmotic gradient, allowing particles in areas of higher concentration (outside the cell) to flow into the cell, an area of lower concentration.
When the cell is in a hypotonic solution, the interior of the cell is more concentrated than the exterior. When the cell volume is below 50%, water flows into the cell to reach a dynamic equilibrium.
---------------------------------
If the initial volume of the cell is below 50%, it means that the interior of the cell is more concentrated than the exterior.
concentration inside the cell > concentration outside the cell.
The exterior of the cell represents a solution in which the cell is immersed.
When talking about solutions, we can classify them as follows,
Hypertonic ⇒ A hypertonic solution has a higher concentration of solute than the cell. This means that in the cell interior, the solute concentration is lower than in the solution itself. Isotonic ⇒ The solute concentration is the same inside the cell and outside. Hypotonic ⇒ A hypotonic solution has a lower concentration of solute than the cell. This means that in the cell interior, the solute concentration is higher than in the solution itself.
If the initial volume of the cell is below 50%, it means that the cell is in a hypotonic solution.
When a cell is in a hypotonic solution, through osmosis, water moves toward the cell.
Osmosis is the phenomenon that occurs when two dilutions of different concentrations -in this example, the interior of the cell and the solution- are separated by a semipermeable membrane.
The membrane allows the pass of water but not solute. Hence, water can move from the most diluted side to the less diluted one.
Water tends to go from the hypotonic solution to the cell interior and keeps doing so until concentrations are equal in the cell interior and exterior.
This is, the interior and exterior of the cell reach a dynamic equilibrium.
Under experimental conditions ⇒ Cells can not limit the amount of water moving into them ⇒ the cell keeps swelling until the membrane can not stretch anymore, and lysis occurs. It bursts.
Under natural conditions ⇒ the body regulates the extracellular fluids to avoid cells swelling until they burst ⇒ Dynamic equilibrium ⇒ Homeostasis.
Let us remember that the term homeostasis refers to stability, balance, or equilibrium.
It is the constant interchange of substances between the cells and the intercellular space, until they reach a dynamic equilibrium, despite the constant environmental variations.
So, when the initial volume of the cell is below 50%, solvent particles flow into the cell to maintain homeostasis, which represents a dynamic equilibrium.
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A cat is composed of organ systems, which are composed of organs, which are composed of tissues, which are composed of cells. Describes what characteristic of life?
Answer:
The correct answer is - cellular organization.
Explanation:
The first and major characteristic of life is a cellular organization out of eight major characteristic features of life every living organism possesses. It says that living things are made of cells. The cellular organization is the fundamental base of the growth and evolution of life.
The evolution of life includes the organization of the micromolecules to the macromolecules that form cell organelles and organelles to a cell, cells form tissue and tissues to organ and organ to organ system and ultimately this complex organization forms the whole organism such as cat.
Thus, the correct answer is - cellular organization.
The characteristic of life being described in the question is the 'biological organization' or 'biological hierarchy'. It includes the hierarchical structure from atoms to organisms.
Explanation:The organized structure from cells to systems in a cat describes the characteristic of life known as biological organization or biological hierarchy. Life is structured in a hierarchical manner from the microscopic level to the macroscopic level. This starts from atoms, forming molecules, which combine to form cells. Cells group together to form tissues, tissues group to form organs, organs group to form organ systems, and organ systems form an organism.
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explain its normal role and why scientists would regard it as the guardian of the genome
Answer:
p53 or Tumor protein (TP53 ) is the Guardian of genome. located on locus 17p13.1 on chromosomes
It is the gene that regulates the protein that codes for process of cell cycle of ( mitosis and meiosis)' and cell death therefore suppresses the uncontrollable cells growth which can lead to tumor.
TP53 has relatively high molecular mass of 53 kilodalton fractions in the cell ; this characteristics together with the ability to conserve cell cycle stability in multicellular organism by stopping mutation of genetic materials by suppressing tumor made it to be called the Guardian of genome.
ROLES
→ p53 functions by arresting the growth of cells to stop uncontrolled growth.
←it also repair damage DNA to guide against mutation, by activation of protein involved in DNA repair.
and
←Promotes death of the cells (Apoptosis,) so that damaged or altered DNA would not be transcript and translated in the cell.
Why are 4 H+ needed for every ATP synthesized and exported by mitochondria, even though only 3 H+ need to be translocated by the ATP Synthase Complex to synthesize one ATP?
Answer: One H⁺ ion ie required in converting ATP and inorganic phosphate to ATP
Explanation:During oxidative phosphorylation, high energy electrons released by hydrogen carriers are shuttled through the electron transport chain. The released energy is used to translocate 3 H+ ions from the matrix, creating an proton motive force, which will cause 1 H+ ion to move down the electrochemical gradient and diffuse back into the matrix (chemiosmosis) which is facilitated by ATP synthase. As the H+ moves through the ATP synthase this triggers the molecular rotation of the enzyme, synthesizing ATP
Final answer:
During oxidative phosphorylation, 4 H+ ions are needed to produce and export one ATP molecule in mitochondria, even though only 3 H+ ions are directly involved in the synthesis of one ATP molecule.
Explanation:
During oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria, 4 H+ ions are needed to synthesize and export one ATP molecule, even though only 3 H+ ions need to be translocated by the ATP Synthase Complex to synthesize one ATP. This is because the process involves a rotation of the F₁ subunit inside the F₁(aß)₃ complex, which requires 12 H+ ions for a complete rotation, resulting in the synthesis of 3 ATP molecules. Therefore, to produce and export one ATP, a total of 4 H+ ions are required.
Modification of these cells would not affect the genetic make-up of one’s children_________.
Answer:
Somatic cells
Explanation:
Alteration done to somatic cells would impact that person's body only—and cannot be inherited.
On the other side, germline cells are procreative cells that can produce embryos. Therefore, any alterations to this ones will be hereditary.
Somatic genetic modification alters the genes in order to provide solution to a medical condition.
Gametes, or sex cells, are produced out of germ cells, while somatic cells are all the cells except sex cells. A mutation that affecsts the germ cells, its termed a germline mutation.
Modification of somatic cells would not affect the genetic make-up of one’s children
An experimenter conducts an experiment on the effects of a drug to control hallucinations. he declares the results to be "statistically significant" which usually means that _________________.
Answer: the differences between experimental and control groups occur only by chance.
Explanation:
In an experiment, the result is said to be statistically significant or to have statistical significance, if it is likely not caused by chance for a given statistical significance level. So, if an experimenter conducts an experiment on the effects of a drug to control hallucinations. he declares the results to be "statistically significant" which usually means that the differences between experimental and control groups occur only by chance
14. briefly outline why control of transcription is more complex in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes
Answer:
I have attached my slides in picture format explaining full process why control of transcription is more complex in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes with examples.
Most mutations do not become widespread in a population because they lower an individual’s fitness. True or False?
Answer: True
Explanation:
Most of the mutation is not widespread because they cannot be transferred from one generation to another and moreover due to this reason they are not naturally selected.
These mutations makes the body of individual weaker and leads to the death of the organism.
If the organism dies how will it transfer the traits so is not favored by nature. This is against the fitness of the individual and the organism becomes weak.