Answer:
The correct answer is 10 to 12 years of age.
Explanation:
Fine motor skills refer to the complex manipulation and dexterity in using groups of small muscles (Such as the muscles from the hands and fingers) to perform movements.
These types of movements require more complex cognitive mechanisms and they start developing around age 6.
At 10 to 12 years of age individuals begin to show manipulative fine motor skills similar to the abilities of adults.
In conclusion, the correct answer is 10 to 12 years of age.
Answer: 10-12years of age
Explanation:
the person up top is correct
I got it on edge
The GNP accounts for the aggregate of all goods and services produced by Americans ____________..
Answer:
Within the country or within the US.
Explanation:
Gross National Product (GNP) is the sum of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and the net income receipt from abroad for the provided services and property etc. This makes GNP an aggregate of all goods and services produced by Americans within the US irrespective of where the goods and services are being consumed or utilized. GNP also provides an idea of how well the country is performing diplomatically and how their products and brands are perceived abroad.
What is the form called that nonresident brokers must submit that allows them to be sued in NY State?
Answer:
Irrevocable consent form
Explanation:
The irrevocable consent form allows a nonresident broker who is operating in New York to be sued in a New York court.
Military-political considerations frequently cast special operations into clandestine or covert environments; therefore, their activities normally involve oversight at the _____ level.
a) tactical
b) nationalc) joint task force
d) operational
Answer:
b) national
Explanation:
Military-political considerations frequently cast special operations into clandestine or covert environments; therefore, their activities normally involve oversight at the national level.
After replicating Stanley Milgram's small world phenomenon experiment, what analogy did Judith Kleinfeld use to explain her conclusions?
Answer:
Judith Kleinfield used the analogy "society is a bowl of lumpy oatmeal" to explain her conclusions. According to her, social barrier is the one vital thing separating people without a proper knowledge of one another.
If the president says, "Everything in the war is going as planned. Trust me, I am the president," he is using what form of the elaboration likelihood model?
Answer:
peripheral-route processing
Explanation:
Peripheral route processing or better known as peripheral route to persuasion is the idea of a message evaluated on the basis of anything other than the central knowledge of the message. It occurs when an individual is persuaded by a surface level characteristics instead of the actual content. As per the question, the president is appealing to trust him on the basis of his position instead of factual information about the war, therefore he is using peripheral route processing.
In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the political objective helps to?
Answer:
Avoid actions that may cause adverse consequences
Explanation:
Crisis Response & Limited Contingency Operations:
These operations are usually carried out to respond in chaotic situations with a defined objective and scope in order to maintain stability.
Examples of such operations are non-combative evacuation operations, precision strike missions, raids, recovery operations, peace keeping operations, homeland defense etc.
Political Understanding:
A thorough understanding of the political objectives can help to shun measures that may cause severe aftermath.
For example, in peace keeping operations, inexperience leaders take decisions not realizing the bigger picture which in turn results in serious political tension among stakeholders.
Having an understanding of the political objective in crisis response and limited contingency operations is important because it provides direction, helps in decision-making, and enables effective communication and coordination with political stakeholders.
Explanation:In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the political objective helps in various ways:
It provides a clear direction and focus for the response efforts, ensuring that actions taken align with the desired outcome.It helps in decision-making by considering the political implications and impact of different options.It allows for effective communication and coordination with relevant political stakeholders, such as government officials and international organizations.By considering the political objective, crisis responders can better navigate the complexities of the situation and work towards achieving the desired political outcomes.
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What might a president do to indicate his or her belief that a portion of the legislation just signed into law is unconstitutional and that he or she intends to disregard it or implement it in some way other than Congress intends?
Answer:
issue a signing statement
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that in this scenario the president may issue a signing statement. Like mentioned in the question this term refers to a written pronouncement issued by a President of the United States stating that he/she believes that a particular provision would be unconstitutional in many of the applications in regards to the bill about to be signed into law.
When required to achieve national strategic objectives or protect national interests, the U.S national leadership may decide to conduct ____.
Answer:When required to achieve national strategic objectives or protect national interests, the U.S. national leadership may decide to conduct a major operation or campaign involving large-scale combat placing the United States in a wartime state.
Explanation:
The major goal of all this is to ensure that the United States is able to prevail against their enemies as soon as possible and end hostility whilst building an atmosphere that is favourable to the host nation and the United States and all its various partners.
Answer: a major operation or campaign involving large scale combat
Explanation: This is aimed achieving a major national strategic objective and protect national interest.
This major campaign will ensure that threats will be out out and national security will be guaranteed.
This major operation has helped the nation to ensure its interest and that of other nations are protected. In recent times especially after the 9-11 attacks the United States Government have ensured this major national strategic objective is achieved.
Salama, a project lead, is given a project with unclear deadlines and expectations. Therefore, she creates a plan by breaking the project up into smaller pieces, hoping the team can proceed with the parts that are clearly defined. However, the team is confused and unable to understand Salama’s project plan. In this situation, what should Salama do to help her team?
Answer:
Call for a meeting to motivate and explain the project plan
Explanation:
Since the project headed by Salama is shrouded in mystery in terms of deadline and expectations, she needs to call an urgent meeting not only to motivate the team members, but also to explain the project plan to fix the problems. A concrete plan for the project will make it clear everything before the team members, and once the project deadline and expectations are set, confusion among the members will be erased.
According to operational stress control, which is not a principle of resilience and stress control?a. Predictabilityb. Controllabilityc. Weight managementd. Relationshipse. Trust
The correct answer is C; weight control.
Further Explanation:
Weight management is not listed on the official Navy website as a principle of resilience. There are approximately 5 principles of resilience according to the operational stress control manual. They are;
ControllabilityTrustMeaningRelationshipsPredictabilityThe operational stress control manual is used to assess the psychological health of the men and women who serve in the Navy. This helps to get medical and mental health of the officers under control since they do have stress reactions and stress injuries due to their service.
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What is the principal determinant for the release of ADH from the posterior pituitary gland? Does ADH favor the formation of dilute or concentrated urine? Explain why.
Answer:
Blood fluid osmolarity.
concentrated urine.
Explanation:
If there is an increase in the osmolarity of blood fluid, there will be an increase in the production of ADH. Similarly, if there is a decrease in the osmolarity of blood fluid, there will be a decrease in the production of ADH. The presence of ADH in the blood stream will favor the creation of concentrated urine. However, if ADH is absent in the blood stream, there won't be any discrepancy in the concentration of urine.
People tend to overestimate
A. subjective utility values following a decision
B. what positive feelings will occur following a decision more so than negative feelings
C. what negative feelings will occur following a decision more so than positive feelings
D. what positive and negative feelings will occur following a decision to the same degree
Answer:
People tend to overestimate what negative feelings will occur following a decision more so than positive feelings.
Explanation:
The fear of the consequences that the mind bears, thinking what if the decision being taken does not turn in our favor, leads to repetitive negative thoughts and feelings. Before making a decision, the mind naturally tends to think of the possible losses that can occur if the decision goes wrong. This is because the drug secreted by positive feelings is never as high as the one secreted by intense fear.A basic tenet of self-perception theory is that we infer our feelings from our behavior when____a.the reasons for our attitudes or feelings are ambiguous.b.the reasons for our attitudes or feelings are clear.c.we can easily identify external reasons for our feelings.d.we think about how others perceive us.
Answer:
a. the reasons for our attitudes or feelings are ambiguous
Explanation:
The Self-perception theory suggests that individuals tend to perceive their own behaviors as good or bad or acceptable or unacceptable and then this affects their own feelings and attitudes. In addition to this fact, it has also been reported that people tend to infer their attitudes and their preferences based on their behaviors not only when they are observing themselves but also when they are behaving unconsciously. This means that people infer feelings from their own behavior and actions and since these feelings can be interpreted in multiple ways hence they are ambiguous. Therefore, option a is the correct answer.
Ruth Chao argues that Asian-American parents are more likely to use the parenting style of ______, rather than authoritarian parenting.
A) guidance
B) affiliation
C) training
D) obedience
Answer:
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Explanation:
Ruth Chao contends that Asian-American parents are more inclined to adopt a guidance-based approach to parenting than an authoritarian one. As a result, option (A) is the best one.
What are the parenting styles?Permissive, authoritative, neglectful, and authoritarian are the four main parenting styles.
Permissive parents are more likely to play a friendship role with their children than a parenting role. They seek to avoid conflict and will frequently give in to their children's pleadings at the first sight of trouble.Authoritative parents are loving, helpful, and frequently aware of their children's needs. They teach their children morals and logic through open and honest dialogues.Neglectful parents spend little time with their children and rarely enforce laws. They can also be perceived as cold and heartless, however, this is not usually on purpose.Authoritarian parenting is a strict parenting style that employs harsh discipline, which is frequently rationalized as "tough love."Hence, option (A) is accurate.
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A researcher has measured self-esteem for a sample of 40 first-grade children. If the researcher wanted to divide the children into two equal-sized groups consisting of the high self-esteem kids and the low self-esteem kids, which statistical measure would identify the correct score to serve as the boundary between the high and the low self-esteem groups?
Answer:
the median
Explanation:
Median: In statistics, the median represents the "middle value" in a particular set of numbers or anything else that needs to measure. To find out the median, a person needs to arrange the set of numbers in order from the least to the greatest numbers. These numbers or values should be set out in numerical order and the value or the number that appears in the middle of the list should be identified and noted down as the median.
In the question above, the statistical measure that needs to be used is the "median".
The median score of the ordered self-esteem data is used to divide the group into two halves, representing high self-esteem and low self-esteem children.
Explanation:To divide 40 first-grade children into two equal-sized groups of high self-esteem and low self-esteem, the researcher should use the median as the statistical measure. The median is the value that separates the higher half from the lower half when the data is ordered from lowest to highest. In this case, the score that falls at the 50th percentile would be the boundary between the high and low self-esteem groups among the children.
A collection of people who exist in same place at the same time, but who don't interact or share a sense of identify are known as:
Answer:
Crowds
Explanation:
Crowds
crowds referred to that collective group of people who are available at one place but don't interact to each other. It is a large group of people gathered at some place.
The our category of crowds are
1) casual crowds
2) conventional crowds
3) expressive crowds
4) acting crowds
Alone in the woods, Chris hears a noise. He thinks he sees a bear coming toward him. Chris' heart starts pounding and then, a moment later, he realizes how frightened he is. This sequence of events is BEST explained by which theory of emotion?
Answer:
James Lange theory of emotions
Explanation:
James Lange's theory of emotions is the theory of emotions that indicated that the physical arousal of a person occurs with the environment stimuli r external factors.
According to this theory f someone wants to feel emotions first of all the person has to feel the physical experience such as an increased heartbeat. When the person noticed the physical arousal then he can say that he feels fear, anxiety, phobia, etc. This theory is opposite to the common-sense view of the theory.
Thus in the above statement, Chris feels a sense of emotions according to James Lange's theory.
Shaw and McKay noted that delinquency rates were higher in ________________ neighborhoods, areas that had changed from affluence to decay and often had commercial, industrial, and residential zoning.
Answer:
Transitional
Explanation:
Hello! One of the types of neighborhoods that condition the presence of delinquency are those defined as in transition, sites with commercial activities and declined industries. These communities with high levels of economic and social deprivation, residential mobility or urbanization are more likely to have high crime rates.
Kicking a victim for refusing to get up is an example of what type of force?
Answer:
Corrective force
Explanation:
Corrective force means using authority or force over someone that is under the supervision or guidance or guardianship of the person using force. This is mostly done to ensure compliance with the given commands and is mainly applied in situations where certain instructions are needed to be followed. In a similar way, the given example also suggest that the victim is being kicked by a security guard for refusing to get up after being instructed. Hence, the answer is corrective force.
Kicking a victim for refusing to get up is an example of physical force.
Explanation:Kicking a victim for refusing to get up is an example of physical force. Physical force refers to the use of physical violence or aggression to exert power and control over someone or something. In this case, the act of kicking is a form of physical force used to coerce or punish the victim for not complying.
Rawls says that each person is to have an equal right to the most extensive basic liberty compatible witha. social utility.
b. a similar liberty for others.
c. traditional morality.
d. economic stability.
Answer:
Similar liberty for others.
Explanation:
John Rawls (1921-2002) was an American moral and political liberal philosopher. Throughout his book, A Theory of Justice (1971) he addresses the problem of distributive justice, or the socially just distribution of goods in the society. In the final chapter of his book he made a final clarification on the two principles on justice.
This principle is considered as a greatest equal liberty principle. He defined the basic equal liberties: political liberty, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, the right to hold personal property, liberty of conscience and freedom of thought, freedom of person as it is - in this last principle freedom from psychological oppression is included, as well as integrity of the person.
Rawls's theory of justice emphasizes equal basic liberties and arranging social and economic inequalities for the benefit of the least advantaged members of society. It aligns with egalitarian views and addresses the challenge of balancing liberty and equality in economic matters.
Explanation:Rawls's Theory of Justice
Rawls argues that society should be governed by two principles. The first principle, known as the 'liberty principle,' states that each person should have an equal right to the same basic liberties as others. The second principle, referred to as the 'difference principle,' states that social and economic inequalities should be arranged in a way that benefits the least advantaged members of society. Rawls's goal is to address structural inequalities and create a society that values both liberty and fairness.
Egalitarianism
Rawls's theory aligns with egalitarian views that emphasize equality and the rights of individuals. While egalitarian theories do not argue for complete sameness, they assert that everyone should have equal moral worth and enjoy equal rights. Rawls's focus on basic liberties and the well-being of the least advantaged members of society reflects this egalitarian perspective.
Economic Arguments
The debate between liberty and equality often centers around economic questions such as property ownership and wealth distribution. Rawls's theory recognizes the challenge of balancing the natural right to property with equality. While not advocating for equal distribution, Rawls emphasizes arranging social and economic inequalities to benefit the least advantaged, thus addressing the tension between liberty and equality.
Identify the statements that describe the political scene in the United States during the Gilded Age.
Final answer:
The Gilded Age in the United States was characterized by political corruption, ineffective governance, and the dominance of a few industrialists and politicians, leading to vast inequalities and a frustrated populace that eventually gave rise to grassroots reform movements.
Explanation:
The political scene during the Gilded Age in the United States was marked by significant corruption and ineffectiveness at the national level. This era, which spanned the late 19th century, was characterized by the dominance of a small group of industrialists and politicians, known as either "captains of industry" or "robber barons," who wielded considerable power over American politics. Industries such as banking and railroads were controlled by these few, leading to vast inequalities of wealth and power. The political atmosphere was rife with graft, bribery, and patronage, largely catering to business interests in exchange for political support and wealth. High-profile examples of corruption included the dealings of Tammany Hall in New York. The federal government, for its part, facilitated this oligarchy by making significant land grants to railway companies, which in turn controlled state legislation through bribery and favors. Notably, two presidents during the Gilded Age were elected without winning the popular vote, highlighting the precariousness of leadership and the slim margins by which elections were won.
Moreover, political patronage further undermined the effectiveness of governance, with Congress composed largely of politicians more interested in maintaining their power and influence than in addressing the needs of the nation. Frustration with the lack of effective leadership and the rapid pace of industrial change led to grassroots reform movements, which sought to address these and other issues directly. The Gilded Age was not only a period of corruption and consolidation of power but also one of significant social and economic change, challenging traditional notions of governance and democracy.
The statements that describe the political scene in the United States during the Gilded Age are:
- Urban politics fell under the sway of corrupt political machines that handed out favors for political and financial support.
- Powerful new corporations raised disturbing questions about the American understanding of political freedom and self-government.
The correct option is (a)&(d).
During the Gilded Age, which spanned roughly from the 1870s to the early 1900s, the United States experienced significant political and social changes.
1. Corrupt Political Machines:
Urban politics fell under the control of corrupt political machines. These political organizations, often led by powerful party bosses, wielded considerable influence over city governments by exchanging favors, jobs, and services for political support and financial contributions. This system of patronage and graft undermined democratic principles and led to widespread corruption in local politics.
2. Rise of Powerful Corporations:
The Gilded Age was marked by the rise of powerful corporations, particularly in industries such as railroads, steel, and oil. These corporations amassed immense wealth and influence, often at the expense of workers, small businesses, and the general public. The growing dominance of these corporate giants raised concerns about their unchecked power and its impact on political freedom and self-government. Critics argued that the immense wealth and influence of corporations threatened the democratic ideals of equality, accountability, and representation, leading to calls for reform and regulation to curb their power.
complete question given below:
Identify the statements that describe the political scene in the United States during the Gilded
Age.
Drag appropriate answer(s) here
a.Urban politics fell under the way of corrupt
political machines that handed out favors for
political and financial support.
b.Americans during the Gilded Age saw the
country as an island of democracy in a world
dominated by undemocratic governments.
c.Crédit Mobilier was created to regulate and
curb corruption in the distribution of
government grants to railroads.
d.Powerful new corporations raised disturbing
questions about the American understanding
of political freedom and self-government.
During his first week of college, Blaine attended a lecture on meteors. His memory of being at that lecture is _____ memory. His memory for the actual information about meteors is _____ memory.
Answer:
Episodic, semantic memory.
Explanation:
Semantic memory is about to collect information about the facts during the life span. This memory is not associated with personal and emotional experiences.
Semantic memory could be as to remember the colors of pencil, pen, and clothes, etc.
Episodic memory as the name indicated this type of memory is about to remember an event, biographical experience such as to remember the birth of your son, a celebration of marriage, Anniversary, etc.
Thus in the above context Blaine memory about the lecture is Episodic memory and to get information about meteors is semantic memory.
In regards to the phases of school shadowing, students with ASD should ________.
a.) Generally progress through one phase at a time
b.) Use a visual schedule prior to entering school, but not once they are in school
c.) Skip around in the phases, as needed based on the type of day they are having
d.) Be given the same level of demands and expectations of the rest of the class in all phases
Answer:
a.) Generally progress through one phase at a time
Explanation:
In regards to the phases of school shadowing, students with ASD should generally progress through one phase at a time. This is because students with Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) experience problems in areas such as social interaction, communication, interests and behaviour, all of which makes learning a various phases at a time nearly impossible.
The statement, "A person who eats meat and then fights for animal rights demonstrates double standards" is an evaluative statement. Such an opinion constitutes the ________ component of an attitude.
Answer:
Cognitive
Explanation:
Attitude is the generalized way a person thinks and acts when presented with a situation.
The cognitive component of attitude is responsible for why the person feels and behaves the way they do when presented with a situation.
For example, a person is afraid of snakes, this is the affective component of attitude
As a result the person avoids snakes, this is the behavioral component of attitude.
The above two components are dependent on the cognitive component as the person thinks of snakes as dangerous.
Here, the statement indicates why the person the feels and behaves the way he/she does when confronted by a person that contradicts themselves.
Hence, this shows the cognitive component of attitude.
Which of the following tools is used to remove a module from an electronic assembly?
Answer:
Chip Puller
Explanation:
An electronic assembly is a general term for the assembly of electronic parts in a machine component. It contains various small electronics parts.
A chip puller tool is also called as an IC extractor or module extractor. It is a tool which is used for quickly and safely removing the module or the integrated circuit module from the sockets.
The main use of the chip puller is to prevent damage to the module and ensure safely removal of the module.
Hence the answer is -- chip puller.
A type of learning in which a stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response that was originally evoked by another stimulus is known as__________.
A.state-dependent learning.
B.classical conditioning.
C.operant conditioning.
D.observational conditioning
Answer:
A. state-dependent learning
Explanation:
State-dependent learning which also known as state-dependent memory is considered one of the most effective methods for memory retrieval. In this phenomenon, the individual is placed in a similar physical state or consciousness in which they first encountered the memory or first created the memory through learning. This helps the individual in providing the same response to the current stimulus that was originally evoked by another stimulus in the past but under similar physical or conscious state.
Answer:
b. classical conditioning
Explanation:
In psychology, the term classical conditioning refers to a form of learning in which an stimulus that triggers a natural answer by itself (unconditioned stimulus and unconditioned response) is paired with another stimulus that originally doesn't trigger any answer (neutral stimulus) but, after some repetitions, the answer evoked by the first stimulus starts to show up by presenting the originally neutral stimulus. Then, this answer is known as the conditioned response and the neutral stimulus has become a conditioned stimulus)
Therefore, in other words we can say that the type of learning in which a stimulus (conditioned stimulus) acquires the capacity to evoke a response (conditioned response) that was originally evoked by another stimulus (unconditioned stimulus) is known as B.classical conditioning.
The man who led Great Britain to victory in the Seven Years' War was ________.
Answer:
General James Wolfe.
Explanation:
Seven Year's war is a worldwide conflict between France and Britain which started in 1756. Britain and France came in direct conflict over their expansion of Ohio river valley. While the Britishers were suffering defeats the Battle of Quebec proved vital for them as they won it under General James Wolfe. By the next year, France was on the losing side and the war ended by the Treaty of Paris signed in 1763.
The changes produced in a population through differential reproduction are said to be what?
Final answer:
The changes produced in a population through differential reproduction lead to evolution. This process, driven by the gene pool's diversity, results in traits that enhance survival and reproductive success becoming more common in a population, leading to adaptation over time.
Explanation:
The changes produced in a population through differential reproduction are referred to as evolution. This process occurs when individuals with specific traits are more likely to survive and reproduce under certain environmental conditions. The gene pool of a population, which is the total collection of genes and their variants in the species, plays a crucial role in evolution. Sexual reproduction and its resultant genetic variability is essential, as it produces diverse phenotypes that can improve a population's chances of survival when conditions change.
Over time, as these well-adapted individuals reproduce more successfully, their genes become more common in the population. This is a direct result of selection pressures where certain traits enhance survival and reproduction. Differential survival and reproduction can lead to a gradual shift in the population's genetic makeup, a phenomenon also known as demographic-based population adaptation.
It is important to differentiate evolution from genetic drift, which is another mechanism of evolution that occurs by chance. While differential reproduction leads to adaptations that are directly beneficial to survival, genetic drift is a random process that affects allele frequencies in a population without regard to the trait's utility.
Scott works for a large bank that is trying to limit the risk associated with unapproved USB devices to company documents. Which is the best solution for this problem?
A) IDS
B) DLP
C) Content filtering
D) NIPS
Answer:
D. NIPS
Explanation:
NIPS which is known as 'network-based intrusion prevention system' is a system used to monitor a network and also protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of a network. Majorly, its function is to protect the network from threats or malicious activities, such as denial of service (DoS) and unauthorized usage from any source. So therefore, this makes Scott limit the risks associated with unauthorized USB devices.
After much resistance, Chad finally agrees to go to the opera with his wife. As they are finding their seats he says sarcastically, "Yeah, this is going to be a lot of fun". What term best describes Chad's statement? Compromise Avoidance Direct agression Passive aggression
Answer:
Passive aggression
Explanation:
Passive aggression: The term passive aggression is a form of an individual's behavior that shows indirect aggression rather than direct aggression. An individual who poses passive-aggressive behavior generally exhibit resistance in his or her behavior by denying others (family, friends) demands or requests through procrastination, acting stubborn, or expressing sullenness.
In the question above, passive aggression best describes Chad's statement.