ACE inhibitors work on the renin-angiotensin system to prevent the conversion of angiotension I to angiotensin II. Because this blocking occurs in the cells in the lung, which is usually the site of this conversion, the use of ACE inhibitors often results in: a) spontaneous pneumothorax. b) respiratory depression. c) unrelenting cough. d) pneumonia

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

c) unrelenting cough

Explanation:

ACE inhibitors stand for Angiotensin-converting-enzyme inhibitors.ACE inhibitors are used for the treatment of high blood pressure and heart diseases. These inhibitors perform their action by causing a relaxation of the blood vessels which results in decreased blood pressure. Further, these inhibitors prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and the site of this conversion is the lungs, since this conversion is blocked by these inhibitors, an unrelenting persistent cough is a common side effect associated with the use of these inhibitors.
Answer 2
Final answer:

ACE inhibitors commonly result in an unrelenting cough as a side effect due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs.

Explanation:

ACE inhibitors work on the renin-angiotensin system to prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. This mechanism is crucial for regulating systemic blood pressure and kidney function. The question posed about the common side effect of the use of ACE inhibitors is related to the location of ACE production, which primarily occurs in the lungs. Among the listed options, the correct answer is that the use of ACE inhibitors often results in an unrelenting cough. This side effect is due to the inhibition of ACE which not only prevents the formation of angiotensin II but also increases levels of bradykinin, a peptide that can cause cough when not broken down by ACE.


Related Questions

American women are far more likely than men to distinguish between colors like teal and turquoise, or magenta and purple. This an example of:

Answers

Answer:color blindness.

Explanation:

This is a sex-linked disordered That is associated with a particular sex cells mostly the X chromosomes of thr father. The father with XY chromosomes is always color blinded because the Y chromosomes is weak and therefore does not carry this allele.The allele is always on the X of the father.

Mothers can be a carrier or Color blinded because of the XX sex chromosomes

Most women inherited the alleles from the color blinded X chromosomes of thier fathers provided the mother is also a carrier for the allele.

Which of the following is NOT true about the cohesion-tension model of water transport?Select one:a. Water must completely fill the pipeline.b. Water molecules attract one another.c. Transpiration exerts a tension as water evaporates from leaves.d. Water is transported in the phloem.e. Water must be attracted to the sides of the xylem.

Answers

Answer:

d. Water is transported in the phloem.

Explanation:

Xylem is the vascular tissue responsible for the movement of water and dissolved minerals from roots to various plant parts. Phloem is another vascular tissue that serves mainly in the translocation of sugars. The cohesion-tension model of water transport explains that the upward movement of water from roots to the aerial plant parts is drive by transpiration pull. Transpiration of water from leaves results in a large negative pressure in xylem elements. Cohesion and adhesion properties of water maintain the water column in xylem elements.

The fossil record shows a strong and persistent trend of decreased size of a mussel. What is the most likely cause of this phenomenon?

Answers

Answer:

Directional selection

Explanation:

Directional selection or positive selection is an aspect of population genetics that favours an extreme phenotype more than other phenotypes, resulting in more of the allele frequency favouring the extreme phenotype.

Examples involve fossil records which prove a reduction in black bears sizes during interglacial periods of the ice ages and a rise in black bear sizes at glacial period in Europe.

Which of the following BEST describes a centric holding cusp of a mandibular left second molar?
a. It is the distofacial cusp and occludes in the embrasure between maxillary first and second molars.
b. It is the distofacial cusp and occludes in the central fossa of a maxillary second molar.
c. It is the distolingual cusp and occludes in the embrasure between maxillary first and second molars.
d. It is the distolingual cusp and occludes in the central fossa of a maxillary second molar.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is B- It is the distofacial cusp and occludes in the central fossa of a maxillary second molar.

Explanation:

Centric holding cusp are also called Stamp Cusps, it is a type of cusp in which include the facial cusp of the mandibular and palatal cusps of the maxillar posterior teeth. The occlude into the central fossa and marginal ridges of the opposing teeth. Centric occlusion is the position of mandibular condyle when the jaws are closed and the teeth are in maximum intercuspation. Occlusion is the static relationship of teeth, it means "closing up".

Which description best matches the location of white matter?
A) In both the brain and spinal cord, white matter is superficial.
B) In the spinal cord, white matter is deep while cerebral white matter is superficial.
C) In both the brain and spinal cord, white matter is deep.
D) In the spinal cord, white matter is superficial while cerebral white matter is deep.

Answers

Answer:

b

Explanation:

i

The description best matches the location of white matter - D) In the spinal cord, white matter is superficial while cerebral white matter is deep.

White matter is tissue in the brain composed of nerve fibers. The fibers connect nerve cells and are covered by myelin. The myelin is what gives white matter its white color.

White matter in the spinal cord is sometimes called superficial tissue because it is located in the outer regions of the brain and spinal cord.Gray matter is situated closer to the center of the central nervous system in the brain or cerebral region.In the brain white matter is the tissue in the largest and deepest part of the brain

Thus, The description best matches the location of white matter - D) In the spinal cord, white matter is superficial while cerebral white matter is deep.

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A synapticcleft, or synaptic gap, can be found between a neuron and ______. a. a gland. b. a musclecell. c. another neuron. d. All of these.

Answers

Answer:

d. All of these

Explanation:

A synaptic cleft or synaptic gap is formed during synapsis. It is a gap between membrane of a axon end bulb and a membrane of a target cell. The target cell can be a muscle cell, a neuron, a gland. The membrane of a axon is called pre-synaptic membrane and membrane of a target cell is called post-synaptic membrane and the space between two membranes is called synaptic cleft. Through the synaptic cleft  impulse is transmitted with the help of neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine.

According to the results of this experiment, germination of tobacco seeds during the first week is:________(a) increased by exposure to light(b) unaffected by light intensity(c) prevented by paper towels(d) accelerated in green-leaved seedlings

Answers

Answer:

a) Increased by exposure of Light

Explanation:

According to the table provided in the full question, Petri dish labelled A was covered for the first week and showed to have the least number of seed growth (i.e 12 germinated seeds). On the other hand Petri Dish B showed to have the highest number of growth for the first week (i.e 20 germinated seeds).

Since Dish A was covered with an opaque cover to block light entry for the first week differentiating it from Dish B ( which was not covered), explaining the reason for the least number of tobacco seeds germinated.

In most cases, to aid proper germination of seeds light exposure is required, hence the key definition in germination "which is the process whereby a seed begins to grow when placed under proper conditions".

According to the results of this experiment, germination of tobacco seeds during the first week is: Increased by exposure of Light.

a)  increased by exposure to light

From the experiment, we can infer that:

According to the table provided in the full question, Petri dish A was covered for the first week and showed to have the least number of seed growth (i.e. 12 germinated seeds). On the other hand Petri Dish B showed to have the highest number of growth for the first week (i.e. 20 germinated seeds). Since, Dish A was covered with an opaque cover to block light entry for the first week differentiating it from Dish B ( which was not covered), explaining the reason for the least number of tobacco seeds germinated. In most cases, to aid proper germination of seeds light exposure is required, hence the key definition in germination "which is the process whereby a seed begins to grow when placed under proper conditions".

Therefore, option a) is correct.

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Mark knows that animals reflexively blink when air is puffed at their eyes. Now Mark wants to use this fact and classical conditioning to train a rat to blink when it hears a tone. He has just started presenting the tone to the rat. Which step of classical conditioning is this?

Answers

Answer:

Step 2 - presentation of the neutral stimulus.

Explanation:

Classical conditioning is the learning procedure in which the active stimulus when mixed with neutral stimulus elicit a strong response. This conditioning was explained by Pavlov.

In the given situation, the tone acts as the neutral stimulus. This stimulus will combine with the puffing that acts as the other strong stimulus and result in the blinking of the animals. Here, Mark shows the step 2 of the classical conditioning.

Thus, the answer is step 2 - presentation of the neutral stimulus.

Pneumocystis jiroveci is a member of the human microbiota that is: a) an obligate parasite. b) an obligate parasite that cannot survive outside the lungs. c) a common member of the human respiratory microbiota. d) actually a protozoan and not a fungus.e) easy to grow in the laboratory.

Answers

Answer:

b) An obligate parasite that cannot survive outside the lungs.

Explanation:

Pneumocystis jirovecii:

This is the fungus which belongs to genus Pneumocystis. Pneumocystis jirovecii is the obligate protozoan extracellular parasite that causes disease known as Pneumocystis pneumonia.

Lifecycle:

Life cycle of any specie which belongs to the genus Pneumocystis is not known. Reason behind this mystery is that its all stages are present in lungs and cannot cultured in the vivo medium. Its direct observation in difficult.

Correct Choice:

b) An obligate parasite that cannot survive outside the lungs.

Biodiversity encompasses the number of: a. ecosystems in a region and number of species in the ecosystem. b. ecosystems in a region, species in an ecosystem, and genes and alleles in a species. c. ecosystems in a region. d. species present in an ecosystem. e. genes and alleles in a species.

Answers

Answer:

b. ecosystems in a region, species in an ecosystem, and genes and alleles in a species.

Explanation:

Biodiversity has three levels - ecosystem, species and genetic diversity. Therefore, Biodiversity  can be defined as the variability among living organisms involving terrestrial, marine, and other aquatic ecosystems, genes and alleles in a species and their ecological complexes such as diversity within species, and between species of the ecosystems.

All cells in an embryo have the same DNA. However, the embryonic cells form organs, such as the brain and the kidneys, which have very different structures and functions. These differences are the result of:_________(1) having two types of cells, one type from each parent(2) rapid mitosis causing mutations in embryo cells(3) new combinations of cells resulting from meiosis(4) certain genes being expressed in some cells and not in others

Answers

Answer:

certain genes being expressed in some cells and not in others

Explanation:

The DNA is present in every cell of the multicellular organism but that does not mean that every cell will perform the same function.

The function of the cell is decided during the cell differentiation phase the function of the cell is determined by the expression of specific genes. Expression of these genes controls the functions of the cell.

In the given question the differences in the structure and function of the brain and kidney arise due to different expression of genes in different cells.

Thus, the selected option is the correct answer.

Final answer:

Differences in organ structures and functions in an embryo, despite having the same DNA, result from a process called differentiation. During differentiation, embryonic cells begin expressing specific genes and take on different roles, thereby forming various organs. This gene expression is controlled by cellular signaling from the embryonic environment.

Explanation:

The differences in organ structures and functions in an embryo, despite all cells having the same DNA, result from gene expression. This process is known as differentiation. During differentiation, the embryonic cells, which are initially identical and have the potential to become any type of cells (totipotent), start expressing specific genes to form different organs. This gene expression pattern is controlled by location-specific chemical signals from the embryonic environment. For instance, some cells in the ectoderm layer of the embryo will express genes specific to skin cells and differentiate into skin cells. Similarly, cells that are destined to become part of the brain, kidneys, or any other organ trigger the expression of a unique set of genes that direct those cells to develop into the proper form and function.

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What is the anemia called that is a result of an improper maturation of red blood cells due to a lack of Vitamin B12?

Answers

Answer:

Megaloblastic anemia is a condition in which the bone marrow produces unusually large, structurally abnormal, immature red blood cells (megaloblasts). ... Megaloblastic anemia has several different causes - deficiencies of either cobalamin (vitamin B12) or folate (vitamin B9) are the two most common causes.

Explanation:

The thermic effect of food (TEF) in the amount of energy the body needs to digest absorb metabolize and more the food you consume. Though TEF various depending on the type of food consumed what percentage of calories in the food a generally used for TEF?
a) 20%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 15%

Answers

Answer:B-10%

Explanation:

Physiologic changes resulting from the normal aging process place older adults at higher risk for adverse effects.

A large forested area is fragmented into small forest tracts separated by agricultural areas. This change will most likely lead to:_________.

Answers

Answer:

Can lead to a drastic change, resulting in a decrease in the gene flow among the species of the original forest before fragmentation.

Explanation:

A forest that is divided into small pieces or areas for agricultural purposes will definitely drive away the organisms originally residing in the forest, thereby reducing the rate of mating, and subsequently decreasing the gene flow.

Agricultural areas are areas of land which are devoted to agriculture. That is, for cultivation of crops and rearing of livestock, most especially for commercial purposes.

The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is defined as the ________

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Parasympathetic Nervous System. The parasympathetic nervous system is an anatomically defined division of the autonomic nervous system, being that part whose motor components run in cranial nerves III, VII, IX, and X and in the sacral nerves.

Butterflies of the genus Colias live in the Rocky Mountains, where they experience a wide range of temperatures. Different variants of a particular glycolytic enzyme in the flight muscles are optimally active at different temperatures. Within the same population, some individual butterflies fly most effectively at 29°C , while others fly most effectively at 40°C. Still others can be equally active at both temperatures. Which of the following claims is most consistent with the observed butterfly behavior?
Butterflies that express two variants of the enzyme are active over a greater range of temperature.
Butterflies that are active over a wide range of temperatures produce greater amounts of the enzyme.
Temperature has little effect on the activity of butterflies.
Butterflies that are active at warmer temperatures produce more offspring.

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is A) Butterflies that express two variants of the enzyme are active over a greater range of temperature.

Explanation:

The butterflies which fly most effectively at 29 degrees Celsius produce one type of variant for the particular glycolytic enzyme in the flight muscles. Whereas the butterflies which fly at 40 degrees Celsius produce anther type of variant for the particular glycolytic enzyme in the flight muscles.

The butterflies which are effective at both temperatures i.e 29 degrees Celsius and 40 degrees Celsius can produce both forms of the variant for the particular glycolytic enzyme in the flight muscles.

Butterflies who inhabit a wide range of temperatures need to produce enzymes that improve their flight. The correct option is 1. Butterflies that express two variants of the enzyme are active over a greater range of temperature.

-----------------------

We know that different variants of the enzyme are optimally active at different temperatures. So there must be an enzymatic variant per temperature or temperature range.

Some individuals of the population live in areas where the temperature is 29ºC, so they produce one type of enzyme. These individuals can fly at 29ºC but not at 40ºC.

Some other individuals live under 40ºC temperature, synthesizing another variant of the enzyme. These individuals can fly at 40ºC but not at 29ºC.

Since this is the same population, there must be individuals who can fly at both temperatures. This is the third group of butterflies.

These individuals are equally active at both temperatures, meaning they can fly at 29º and 40ºC. So they need to have two variants of enzymes that make them good at flight. The one needed to fly at 29ºC, and the other enzyme needed at 40ºC.

1) Butterflies that express two variants of the enzyme are active over a greater range of temperature.

This is correct. These butterflies need both variants of the enzyme to fly at both temperatures, covering a wider range.

2) Butterflies that are active over a wide range of temperatures produce greater amounts of the enzyme.

This is not correct. Independently of the amount of enzyme, they need the two variants to express a good flight at both temperatures.

3) Temperature has little effect on the activity of butterflies.

This is not correct. Temperature influences the butterflies. This is a limiting factor for individuals.

4) Butterflies that are active at warmer temperatures produce more offspring.

This is not correct. According to this information, we can not know which butterfly produce more offspring.

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Algal cells are placed in an isotonic solution. Additional amounts of solutes are slowly added to the solution. What happens to the cells?A) They will begin to swell.
B) They will burst.
C) They will stay the same.
D) They will shrink.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option-D

Explanation:

An isotonic solution is a solution which contains iso or the same amount of solute concentration to the inside of the cell.

If the solute is added to the isotonic solution then the solute concentration of the solution will be increased and thus the solution will be called a hypertonic solution. The hypertonic solution has high osmotic pressure and low water concentration.

When algal cell will be placed in a hypertonic solution then the algal cell will shrink as the water will move out of the algal cell as a result of the osmosis- the movement of the water from high concentration to low concentration.

Thus, option-D is the correct answer.

Final answer:

Correct option is D. When additional solutes are added to an isotonic solution containing algal cells, the solution becomes hypertonic, and the cells will shrink due to water leaving them to balance solute concentrations.

Explanation:

When algal cells are placed in an isotonic solution and additional solutes are slowly added, the solution becomes hypertonic relative to the cells. As more solute is added to the solution, water begins to move out of the cells to balance the concentration of solutes outside the cell, because there is now a higher concentration of solutes outside than inside the cell. This process is known as osmosis. As the algal cells lose water, they will shrink, a process known as crenation in animal cells or plasmolysis in plant cells. Therefore, the correct option will be  D) They will shrink.

There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves?

Answers

Answer:

Layer of ganglion cells

Explanation:

Retina constitute the nervous coat/layer of the eye. Retina is further divided into ten layers. These layers from outermost to innermost are:

1. Retinal pigment epithelium

This is the outermost layer and is composed of hexagonal cells containing the pigment melanin.

2. Photoreceptor layer i.e. layers of rods and cons

This layer contains the rods and cones which are end organs of visual reception.

3. External Limiting membrane

This layer lies between layer of rods and cones and outer nuclear layer.

4. Outer Nuclear layer

This layer contains the nuclei of rods and cones.

5. Outer plexiform layer

This layer is characterized by the synapses of axons of photoreceptors and dendrites of bipolar cells.

6. Inner Nuclear layer

This layer contains the nuclei of bipolar cells.

7. Inner plexiform layer

This layer is characterized by the synapses of axons of bipolar cells and dendrites of ganglion cells.

8. Ganglion cell layer/ Layer of ganglion cells

This layer contains the nuclei of ganglion cells.

9. Nerve fiber layer

This layer contains the axons of ganglion cells. These axons form the fibers of optic nerve which is cranial nerve II.

10. Inner limiting membrane

This is the innermost layer of retina and lies next to the vitreous body. Vitreous body is a transparent, avascular jelly-like substance which occupies the posterior chamber of the eye.

ANSWER:

Axons of layer of ganglion cells form the optic nerves.

The three layers of neurons in retina are:

Outer Nuclear LayerInner Nuclear LayerGanglion cell Layer

The axons of the ganglion cell layer in the retina form the optic nerves.

How does the axons work?

The retina is the light-sensitive tissue lining the back of the eye. It consists of three layers of neurons: the photoreceptor layer (containing rods and cones that detect light), the bipolar cell layer, and the ganglion cell layer.

When light stimulates the photoreceptors, they send signals to the bipolar cells, which then transmit the information to the ganglion cells.

The axons of the ganglion cells converge at the optic disc, creating the optic nerves that carry visual information to the brain.

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British investigators conducted a study to examine measles- mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine history among 1,294 children with pervasive development disorder (e.g., autism and Asperger's syndrome) and 4,469 children without such disorders. (They found no association.) This is an example of which type(s) of study?
A. Randomize Control Trial
B. Case-Control
C. Cross-sectional
D. Retrospective Cohort

Answers

Answer:

B. Case-Control

Explanation:

A case-control is a study that compares a group with an outcome of interest (cases) with a group who do not have the outcome (controls). This study aims to looks back retrospectively to compare how frequently the exposure to a risk factor is present in each group and with that to determine the relationship between that risk factor and the outcome.

So in this case, the cases are children with pervasive development disorder and the control is those without the disorders.

These studies are normally observational because no intervention is attempted.

Until the middle of the nineteenth century, all peppered moths (Biston betularia) observed around Manchester, England, were light in color. In 1845, a single black peppered moth was reported. As Manchester became more industrialized and dark soot began to cover the bark of the trees, the frequency of black moths increased greatly. The change in proportion of light and dark forms resulted from____________.
Select one:

A. disruptive selection.
B. directional selection.
C. stabilizing selection.
D. genetic drift.
E. increased mutation

Answers

Answer:

B. directional selection.

Explanation:

Changes in environmental conditions over time makes the natural selection to favor one of the extreme phenotypes due to its better survival and reproductive fitness over the other phenotypes. The favored phenotype gradually becomes abundant in the population. This type of natural selection is called directional selection.  

In the given example, industrialization led to the deposition of dark soot over the barks of the tress. The black moths had better survival success as they could blend themselves with the dark background. The light-colored moths were easily picked by predators. This led to a gradual increase in the number of black colored moths in the population. Since one of the extreme phenotypes (black color) was favored, the process is called directional selection.  

A volcanic eruption on the coast of Japan in 1850 deposits a layer of ash on top of a layer of red clay, and the ash is covered by a layer of silt in a tsunami in 1902. Archaeologists find a coin between the ash and silt, and they find a small pot between the ash and clay. Given this sequence of events, which of the following is true?

a. The pot is younger than the coin.
b. The pot is older than the coin.
c. The pot and the coin are the same age.
d. The coin is older than the pot

Answers

Answer:

Option B

Explanation:

The series of events mentioned in this description are as follows -  

a) In 1850, ash layer deposits over the layer of red clay  

b) In 1902, layer of silt from tsunami covers the ash

Now pot is found in between ash and red clay layer  

While coin is found in between ash and silt.  

Thus, it is clear that pot was first buried between the ash and red clay layer. While coin was buried in 1902 above the ash layer but beneath the silt layer.  

Hence, option B is correct

 

A signal has reached the terminus of a client’s nerve and is in the space where the nerve is closest to the effector cell in a muscle. At what location is this signal?

Answers

Answer:

The options to consider are

a. Synapse

b. Soma

c. Neuron

d. Schwann cell

a. Synapse is the ANSWER

Explanation:

The SYNAPSE (neuronal junction)

is the site where the nerves appears closest to the effector cell in a muscle.

In this spot, electric nerve impulses among two neurons or a neuron and the effector cell in a muscle are transmitted.

Zachary is a 17-year-old male who appears boastful, conceited, and arrogant. When someone accuses him of being that way, he flies into a rage. He shows little care for others and is often envious when others are recognized for their achievements. He is also prone to daydreaming and fantasizing about the success that awaits him.

Answers

Answer:The diagnose for Zachary would be Narcissistic Personality Disorder (NPD).

Explanation: This type of disorder is connected with the following behaviors; the person shows little care for others and is often envious when others get reconized for their achivements. People with this type of this disorder are also prone to daydreaming and fantasizing about the success that awaits him.

Answer:

His behavior shows that he is suffering from Narcissistic personality disorder.

Explanation:

Narcissistic Personality Disorder:

It is such a personality disorder in which a person develops traits like that of a narcissist.

The person tends to consider himself or herself most important and always correct.The persons doesn't show care for others and doesn't concern for others.The person wants that everyone should praise him or her and nobody has the right to criticize.

In our case, the 17- year male is showing such personality traits like he is arrogant and boastful and doesn't show care for others.

Lauren's friend has recommended that she take a vitamin C supplement before undergoing oral surgery. Lauren is concerned about consuming too much of the supplement.
Which of the following nutrient standards would assist Lauren in determining the highest amount of the supplement that would be safe for her to consume?
Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)
Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR)

Answers

Answer:

Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)

Explanation:

Tolarable upper intake level is defined as the highest level of nutrient that can be consumed such that it  poses no risk of adverse health effects for all the individuals in the general population. If a person consumes more than the  UL, the risk of adverse effects also increases.Therefore, when Lauren has to take vitamin C supplements it is important that she knowns the tolerable upper intake level that is the upper limit so that she can determine the highest amount of supplement that would be safe for her to take.
Final answer:

To understand the maximum safe consumption level of a Vitamin C supplement, Lauren should refer to the Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL), which indicates the highest amount of a nutrient that can be consumed without adverse effects.

Explanation:

In order to determine the highest safe amount of Vitamin C supplementation, Lauren should refer to the Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL). The UL represents the maximum amount of a nutrient that most people can consume daily without experiencing negative side effects. These limits are established after reviewing numerous research studies and considering various factors such as age and gender. While the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) and Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) could provide useful information for Lauren, they might not adequately address her specific concern of overdosing. The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR), on the other hand, is related to macronutrient ratios and is not specific to individual nutrients like Vitamin C.

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Cells that absorb nutrients from the gastrointestinal tract are of what tissue type

Answers

Answer:

plasma membrane or tissues

Match the different roles of people involved in the buying center with their responsibilities.

initiators
influencers
buyers

handle the process of choosing the vendor and negotiating the price

identify the requirement for a product within the company

provide specifications about the technology needed by the company

Answers

Answer:

Initiators  - identify the requirement for a product within the company

Influencers  - provide specifications about the technology needed by the company

Buyers - handle the process of choosing the vendor and negotiating the price

Explanation:

The buying centre of an organisation consists of 7 different member namely Initiators, Users, Buyers, Influencers, Deciders,  Approvers,  Gate Keepers.

Initiators  are the person who are first to suggests or initiates of the idea of buying the particular service or product. Influencer are the whose views or idea influence the decision making process. These influencers could be  qualified engineers, technical personnel, consultants. Buyers are the persons who takes care of the the person who handles the paper work of the actual purchase.These buyers plays a vital role in choosing  vendors. Sometimes they also helps in shaping the product specifications.

Answer:

Buyers - handle the process of choosing the vendor and negotiating the price

Initiators  - identify the requirement for a product within the company

Influencers  - provide specifications about the technology needed by the company

Bees with a larger wingspan were able to produce more offspring, making the trait more common. It could be said that ____ favored the bee with the larger wingspan, and so the ____ evolved.

Answers

Answer:

Natural selection, population

Explanation:

Natural selection is a mechanism of evolution by which individuals of a population having a specific phenotype that is favored in a given environment can reproduce more and survive better and hence, the population of individuals with that specific phenotype increases with time. In the given situation it is given that the bees with a larger wingspan produced more offspring and hence, this shows that natural selection favored the bee with a phenotype of larger wingspan and thus, the population evolved with time.

Carbohydrates contain a. carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorus. b. carbon, sulfur, and potassium. c. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. d. carbon, helium, and sodium.

Answers

Answer:

Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. (Ans. C).

Explanation:

Carbohydrates are defined as macronutrients consisting carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms, which are found in vegetables, fruits, milk products, and grains. They are known as the basic food group, a healthy diet, and playing important role in the proper body functioning. Some important function of carbohydrates are:

1) Carbohydrates provide energy for working muscle, and fuel for the central nervous system.

2) Carbohydrate are also important for brain function.

3) They help to reduce the risk of diseases.

4) In the form of fiber carbohydrates helps to improve the health of digestive system.

Final answer:

Carbohydrates contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. These elements make up monosaccharides, the subunits of carbohydrate molecules. An example is glucose (C6H12O6).

Explanation:

The correct answer to your question is c. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Carbohydrates are biomolecules made up of these three elements. Each carbohydrate molecule is composed of smaller, repeating subunits known as monosaccharides, which, themselves, contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms.

This structural feature of carbohydrates is important, as the hydrogen and oxygen atoms typically appear in a ratio that is similar to water, hence the term 'hydrate' in carbohydrates. An example of a simple carbohydrate is glucose, which has the molecular formula of C6H12O6.

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An 80-year-old male client presents to the emergency department with a fractured ankle and multiple abrasions and contusions. He is admitted to the hospital with an order for oxycodone for pain. Oxycodone may be prescribed for a geriatric client because the drug has which characteristic?

Answers

Answer:

It has a short half-life and is less likely to accumulate, causing toxicity or overdosage.

Explanation:

The complete question is as follows:

An 80-year-old male client presents to the emergency department with a fractured ankle and multiple abrasions and contusions. He is admitted to the hospital with an order for oxycodone for pain. Oxycodone may be prescribed for a geriatric client because the drug has which characteristic?

It has a short half-life and is less likely to accumulate, causing toxicity or overdosage.

It is metabolized by the liver.

It is excreted by the kidney.

It has a long half-life and will manage bone pain more effectively.

Oxycodone is a narcotic drug that is used for treating pain that can be moderate or severe. Oxycodone is an opioid, an opioid acts on the opioid receptors that can produce morphine-like effects and acts as pain relievers.Since the 80-year-old client has fractured ankle along with abrasions and contusions he must be administered pain relievers and thus, an opioid has to be prescribed.When opioids are prescribed, those with short half-lives are used because they are less likely to accumulate and oxycodone is one of them.

A parent brings her child to the ED. She thinks she swallowed a small toy figure. A radiology exam from the nose to the rectum is performed. The foreign body is not located. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for the radiology services?

Answers

Answer:

The question is lacking in the options. Below are the options to complete the question

a. 70160, 70370, 71010, 74245

b. 43235, 44363

c.76010

d. 70160, 70370, 71010, 43235, 44363

The RIGHT ANSWER IS C

c.76010

Explanation:

To find a foreign body a radiology exam has to be done. In this senerio the foreign body was not found. In the CPT® Index, look for X-ray/Nose to Rectum/Foreign Body. The correct code is 76010

CPT® code(s) reported for the radiology services is 76010.

76010 is the CPT® code for a radiologic examination, which is used for a radiologic examination from the nose to the rectum for the detection of a foreign body.This code is specifically used for cases where the entire alimentary tract needs to be imaged to locate a potential foreign object.The radiology exam involves multiple images taken along the path from the nose to the rectum to ensure no part is missed.The comprehensive nature of this code accounts for the complete examination, making it the appropriate choice for this scenario.
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